INDIAN POLITY AND GOVERNANCE -

Historical Background & Making of Indian Constitution

1. Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day: (2023)

Statement-I: The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.

Statement-II: On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but StatementII is correct

Answer: (c)

Statement 1 is correct:

The Constitution Day of India, also known as National Law Day, is celebrated on 26th November every year. It is observed to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India by the Constituent Assembly in 1949, which came into effect on 26th January 1950, marking the establishment of India as a democratic republic.

Statement 2 is incorrect: On 29th August 1947, the Constituent Assembly established a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar. This committee was responsible for the task of drafting the Constitution of India. The drafting process took approximately two years, and the final draft was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26th November 1949.

2. We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our model differ from that model? (2021)

1. As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of the Parliament to legislate is limited.

2. In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act of the Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

Statement 1 is correct:

Britain follows Parliamentary sovereignty as a principle of its constitution. It makes Parliament the supreme legal authority in the UK, which can create or end any law. Generally, the courts cannot overrule its legislation, and no Parliament can pass laws that future Parliaments cannot change.

Indian Parliament is not a sovereign body like the British Parliament. The Indian Parliament may, in the exercise of its constituent power, amend by way of addition, variation or repeal any provision of the Constitution following the procedure laid down for the purpose.

– However, the Parliament cannot amend those provisions which form the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution. The Supreme Court ruled this in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973).

Statement 2 is correct: In India, matters related to the constitutionality of an amendment of an act of the Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court.

A Constitution Bench is a bench of the Supreme Court having five or more judges on it. These benches are not a routine phenomenon. Most cases before the Supreme Court are heard and decided by a bench of two judges (called a Division Bench) and sometimes by three. Constitution Benches are set up when the case involves a substantial question of law about the interpretation of the Constitution (Article 145(3) of the Constitution, which mandates that a bench hear such matters of not less than five judges).

Presently, Constitution Benches are set up ad hoc as and when the need arises. The idea behind a Constitution Bench is clear: it is constituted in rare cases to decide important questions of fact or legal and constitutional interpretation.

3. Which one of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy? (2021)

(a) A committed judiciary

(b) Centralization of powers

(d) Separation of powers

Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct: The Separation of powers between the legislature, the executive and the judiciary constitutes an important safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy. The doctrine of Separation of powers entails the division of the legislative, executive, and judicial functions of government among different organs.

This separation minimises the possibility of arbitrary excesses by the government since all three organs act as checks and balances on the powers of each other. Therefore, none of the three organs can usurp the essential functions of other organs. This demarcation prevents the concentration of excessive power by any branch of the Government. It thus helps to safeguard the liberty and rights of the people in a democracy.

4. What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950? (2021)

(a) A Democratic Republic

(b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic

(d) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic

Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct: The original Preamble, adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26th November 1949 and came into force on 26th January 1950, declared India as a “Sovereign Democratic Republic”.

By the 42nd Amendment of 1976, enacted during the Emergency, the words “Socialist” and “Secular” were inserted. The Preamble now reads “Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic”.

5. Constitutional government means (2021)

(a) a representative government of a nation with federal structure

(b) a government whose Head enjoys nominal powers

(d) a government limited by the terms of the Constitution

Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct:

A constitutional government seeks to limit and regulate the exercise of political power by the government. Constitutional government is, by definition, limited government.

It means the government is conducted according to rules and principles, which are binding on all political actors. The Constitution lays down limits on the powers of the government and gives the rights to the citizens.

Q. In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty? (2019)

(a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers

(b) Absence of restraints

(d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully

Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct: The term ‘liberty’ means the absence of restraints on activities of individuals and at the same time, providing opportunities for the development of individual personalities.

However, it does not mean ‘licence’ to do what one likes and has to be enjoyed within the limitations mentioned in the Constitution itself. In brief, liberty conceived by the Preamble or Fundamental Rights is not absolute but qualified.

Though, liberty in narrow sense is the absence of restraints. But a wider interpretation of liberty is positive and that is facilitating the overall development of an individual.

7. Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty? (2018)

(a) If there are more laws, there is less liberty.

(b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.

(d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.

Answer: (b)

Liberty or freedom is formally defined as absence of restraint. Law, on the other hand, imposes restraints on certain activities of individuals. When liberty is accepted as a universal principle, it is imperative that liberty of one individual does not endanger the liberty of another individual.

Option (b) is correct: This necessitates restriction on liberty of individuals so as to allow equal liberty to all. Law is precisely the means to impose such restrictions. Law restricts liberty in requiring us to do things that we might otherwise want to do, and in requiring us to refrain from actions that we might otherwise want to do. Therefore, restrictions upon liberty imposed by the law intend to protect the liberty of others which would be impeded by the behaviour that the law restricts. Thus, if there are no laws, there is no liberty

8. Which of the following are regarded as the main feature of “Rule of Law”? (2018)

1. Limitation of power

2. Equality before the law

3. People’s responsibility to the Government

4. Liberty and civil rights

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (c)

The Rule of Law is the foundational feature of all modern democratic nations. A.V. Dicey, the British jurist, has given a few elements or aspects of Rule of Law.

Option (c) is correct:

Equality before the law, that is, equal subjection of all citizens (rich or poor, high, or low, official, or non-official) to the ordinary law of the land administered by the ordinary law courts.

Absence of arbitrary power/ limitation of power, that is, no man can be punished except for a breach of law. It implies the government has limited powers that it derived from the law.

The primacy of the rights, liberty and civil rights, of the individual, that is, the Constitution is the result of rights of individuals as defined and enforced by the court of law rather than the Constitution being the source of individual rights.

The first and second elements are applicable to the Indian system, the Constitution is the source of individual rights. Rule of law along with its three basic elements results in the formation of a government that is responsible to the people, not the other way around.

9. Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity (2017)

(a) The intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.

(b) The methods for strengthening executive leadership.

(d) A band of dedicated party workers

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: The Indian Constitution provides for representative democracy under which the executive is responsible to the legislature for all its activities. he take-off point for democracy is the idea of consent, i.e., the desire, approval and participation of people.

It is the decision of the people that creates a democratic government and decides its functioning. Since democracy requires voters’ decision making, hence intelligence and character of ordinary men and women are called in.

10. The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following? (2017)

(a) The Preamble

(b) The Fundamental Rights

(d) The Fundamental Duties

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: The Preamble refers to the introduction or preface to the Constitution. It contains the summary or essence of the Constitution.

The Preamble reveals four ingredients or components:

Source of the authority of the Constitution
Nature of Indian polity
Objectives of the Constitution
Date of adoption of the Constitution Preamble embodies the basic philosophy and fundamental values (political, moral, and religious) on which the Constitution is based upon.

It contains the grand and noble vision of the Constituent Assembly and reflects the dreams and aspirations of the founding fathers of the Constitution. Sir Alladi Krishnaswami Iyer, a member of the Constituent Assembly, said, “The Preamble to our Constitution expresses what we had thought or dreamt for so long.”

11. The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provided in the (2012)

(a) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909

(b) Montagu-Chelmsford Act, 1919

(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947

Answer: (c)

Option (c) is correct: The Constitution of India provides for a federal system of government in the country. Since the structural part of the Constitution is, to a large extent, derived from the Government of India Act of 1935, the distribution of power between the Center and the States is also largely taken from the Government of India Act of 1935.

The main features of the Government of India Act of 1935 are as follows:

It provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation consisting of provinces and princely states as units. The Act divided the powers between the Centre and units in terms of three lists—Federal List (for Centre, with 59 items), Provincial List (for provinces, with 54 items) and the Concurrent List (for both, with 36 items). Residuary powers were given to the Viceroy. However, the federation never came into being as the princely states did not join it.
It abolished dyarchy in the provinces and introduced ‘provincial autonomy’ in its place. The provinces were allowed to act as autonomous units of administration in their defined spheres. Moreover, the Act introduced responsible governments in provinces, that is, the governor was required to act with the advice of ministers responsible to the provincial legislature. This came into effect in 1937 and was discontinued in 1939.
It provided for the adoption of dyarchy at the Centre. Consequently, the federal subjects were divided into reserved subjects and transferred subjects. However, this provision of the Act did not come into operation at all.
It introduced bicameralism in six out of eleven provinces. Thus, the legislatures of Bengal, Bombay, Madras, Bihar, Assam and the United Provinces were made bicameral consisting of a legislative council (upper house) and a legislative assembly (lower house). However, many restrictions were placed on them.
It further extended the principle of communal representation by providing separate electorates for depressed classes (scheduled castes), women and labour (workers).
It abolished the Council of India, established by the Government of India Act of 1858. The secretary of state for India was provided with a team of advisors.
It extended the franchise. About 10 percent of the total population got the voting right.
It provided for the establishment of a Reserve Bank of India to control the currency and credit of the country
t provided for the establishment of not only a Federal Public Service Commission but also a Provincial Public Service Commission and Joint Public Service Commission for two or more provinces.
Established Federal court of India

Features of the Indian Constitution

1. In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ mean? (2023)

(a) The principle of natural justice

(b) The procedure established by law

(d) Equality before law

Answer: (a)

Natural Justice implies fairness, reasonableness, equity and equality. Natural Justice is a concept of Common Law, and it is the Common Law world counterpart of the American concept of ‘procedural due process’.

Natural Justice represents higher procedural principles developed by judges which every administrative agency must follow in taking any decision adversely affecting the rights of a private individual.

The principles of natural justice are firmly grounded under various Article of the Constitution. With the introduction of the concept of substantive and procedural due process in Article – 21 of the Constitution all that fairness which is included in the principles of natural justice can be read into Article – 21 when a person is deprived of his life and personal liberty.

2. Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the ‘Constitution’ of a country? (2023)

(a) It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.

(b) It enables the creation of political offices and a government.

(d) It secures social justice, social equality and social security

Answer: (c )

The purpose of the constitution can be derived from the larger principle of constitutionalism which refers to limiting the powers of the government by a single or a set of laws determining power structure and organisation of the government.

3. Consider the following statements: (2023)

1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.

2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to person being held for preventive detention

3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

3. Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is correct: According to the Constitution of India, the responsibility for maintaining law and order and protecting states from internal disturbances primarily lies with the respective state governments.However, in certain exceptional circumstances, the central government has the power to intervene and provide assistance to a state government in handling internal disturbances. This is outlined in Article 355 of the Constitution, which states that it is the duty of the central government to protect every state against external aggression and internal disturbances and to ensure that the government of each state is carried out in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.

Statement 2 is correct. According to Article 22 of Constitution of India (Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases):

(1) No person who is arrested shall be detained in custody without being informed, as soon as may be, of the grounds for such arrest nor shall he be denied the right to consult, and to be defended by, a legal practitioner of his choice.

(2) Every person who is arrested and detained in custody shall be produced before the nearest magistrate within a period of twenty four hours of such arrest excluding the time necessary for the journey from the place of arrest to the court of the magistrate and no such person shall be detained in custody beyond the said period without the authority of a magistrate

(3) Nothing in clauses (1) and (2) shall apply (a) to any person who for the time being is an enemy alien; or (b) to any person who is arrested or detained under any law providing for preventive detention.

Hence, According to Clause (3) Article 22 of the Constitution of India, it is not mandatory for states to provide access to legal counsel to the person held for preventive detention.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Under the UAPA, the confession of an accused made to a police officer is not admissible as evidence in court. Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, specifies that a confession made to a police officer is considered to be involuntary and hence cannot be used as evidence against the accused.

4. If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it ? (2022)

(a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.

(b) This would create a local self-governing body in that area.

(d) The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.

4. Answer: (a) Option (a) is correct:

This would prevent the shifting of the land of tribal people to non tribal people. This aspect of the law relating to special constitutional protections for Scheduled Tribes and Scheduled Areas has also seen some important developments. A leading decision on the subject was passed by the Supreme Court in Samatha vs. the State of Andhra Pradesh. The Court was asked to rule on whether the grant of a mining lease, in a Scheduled Area to a non-tribal, was in violation of laws preventing alienation of Adivasi lands. The specific context for the case was the Andhra Pradesh Scheduled Areas Land Transfer Regulation 1 of 1970, which explicitly prohibits any person in a Scheduled Area from transferring lands to anyone other than a Scheduled Tribe. The premise of the regulation is that all land in Scheduled Area is presumed to have been Adivasi land; hence, not only should no land now pass into the hands of non-Adivasis, but any land presently owned by non-tribal should, if being transferred, come back to the hands of Scheduled Tribes. The question before the Court was whether the grant of a mining lease on government land to a non-tribal violated this principle.

The Court did not rely purely on the specific clauses of the Regulation and instead held that the Constitution itself requires that land in Scheduled Areas should remain with the Adivasis to preserve their autonomy, culture and society. The Regulation, hence, should be interpreted ‘expansively’ in order to fulfil this mandate.

5. Under the Indian Constitution, concentration of wealth violates (2021)

(a) the Right to Equality

(b) the Directive Principles of State Policy

(d) the Concept of Welfare

5. Answer: (b) Option (b) is correct:

The concentration of wealth violates the Directive principles of state policy. Under Article 39 of the Constitution of India, the State shall direct its policy towards ensuring that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment.

6. What is the position of the Right to Property in India? (2021)

(a) Legal right available to citizens only

(b) Legal right available to any person

(d) Neither Fundamental Right nor legal right

6. Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct: The Supreme Court has recently held that a citizen’s right to own private property is a human right. The Right to Property is a legal right available to any person. Article 300-A provides that no person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law. “ Since the article says that no person shall be deprived, the statement, “legal rights are available to citizens only”, is not correct.

7. ‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the Constitution of India? (2021)

(a) Article 15

(b) Article 19

(d) Article 29

7. Answer: (c)

Option (c) is correct: In K. S. Puttaswamy Case (2017), the Supreme Court of India has held that the right to privacy is a Fundamental Right and is protected under Article 21 of the Constitution of India. Privacy is a constitutionally protected right that deals with a guarantee of life and liberty in Article 21 of the Constitution. It includes the preservation of personal intimacies, sanctity of family life, marriage, procreation, the home and sexual orientation. It connotes a right to be left alone. It safeguards individual autonomy and recognises one’s ability to control vital aspects of their life.

8. With reference to India, consider the following statements : (2021)

1. There is only one citizenship and one domicile.

2. A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State.

3. A foreigner once granted citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3

8. Answer: (a)

Statement 1 is correct: In India, people have single citizenship, i.e., a person can have only one citizenship. Also, at a particular time, a person can have only one domicile.

Statement 2 is not correct: Any citizen of India (Citizen by birth or Naturalised Citizen) can become the Head of State, i.e., the President, in India.

Statement 3 is not correct: A foreigner, once granted citizenship, can be deprived of citizenship under the circumstances like registration is done by fraud, a person is disloyal towards the constitution, voluntarily acquiring citizenship of another country, etc.

9.Which one of the following best defines the term ‘State’? (2021)

(a) A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external control and possessing an organised government

(b) A politically organised people of a definite territory and possessing an authority to govern them, maintain law and order, protect their natural rights and safeguard their means of sustenance

(c) A number of persons who have been living in a definite territory for a very long time with their own culture, tradition and government

(d) A society permanently living in a definite territory with a central authority, an executive responsible to the central authority and an independent judiciary

9. Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: A state is a form of human association distinguished from other social groups based on its purpose of formation. The state is a political organisation of society. The elements of a state are:

O People, i.e., the community of persons permanently living there.

O Government

O Territory: Demarcated boundary that separates one state from the other.

O Sovereignty: It has an independent say in all domestic and external decision-making.

10. Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character? (2021)

(a) The independence of the judiciary is safeguarded.

(b) The Union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent units.

(d) The Fundamental Rights are enforceable by Courts of Law.

10. Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: The establishment of an independent judiciary necessarily indicates the federal character of Indian polity.

Following are the federal features of the Indian Constitution:

O Dual polity consists of the Union at the Centre and the states at the periphery.

O Written Constitution

O Division of powers between the Centre and the states (by Schedule seven)

O Supremacy of the Constitution

O The rigidity of the constitution

O Bicameral legislature consisting of Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha

O Independence of judiciary

11. Consider the following statements : (2021)

1. ‘Right to the City’ is an agreed human right and the UN-Habitat monitors the commitments made by each country in this regard.

2. ‘Right to the City’ gives every occupant of the city the right to reclaim public spaces and public participation in the city.

3. ‘Right to the City’ means that the State cannot deny any public service or facility to the unauthorised colonies in the city.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 2 and 3

11. Answer: (d)

Statement 1 is not correct: Though, the right to the city was at the heart of the New Urban Agenda agreed upon at Habitat III. But ‘Right to the City’ is not an agreed human right. In the run-up to Habitat III, India opposed the inclusion of the Right to the City in the draft New Urban Agenda in 2016 that was to define the way cities worldwide are shaped over the next two decades.

Statement 2 is correct. The Right to the City is the right of all inhabitants (present and future, permanent and temporary) to inhabit, use, occupy, produce, transform, govern and enjoy cities, towns and human settlements that are just, inclusive, safe, sustainable and democratic, defined as common goods for enjoying life with dignity and peace. The right to the city further implies responsibilities on governments and people to claim, defend, and promote this right. This right claims for:

O the social function of the city;

O uality public spaces;

O sustainable and inclusive rural-urban linkages;

O inclusive economies;

O inclusive citizenship;

O enhanced political participation;

O non-discrimination;

O gender equality; and

O cultural diversity

Statement 3 is correct: The Right to the City (RTC) recognises equal access to urban life as a basic human right for all, including migrants, slum dwellers and the homeless. RTC gives every occupant, irrespective of their legality, a claim over the city. It requires the State to act on the principles of social justice and provide equal services to each and every resident. So, ‘Right to the City’ means that the State cannot deny any public service of the facility to the unauthorised colonies in the City.

12. A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of application of law violates one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?

(a) Article 14

(b) Article 28

(d) Article 44

12. Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: Article 14 of the Indian Constitution says that the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India. The concept of ‘equality before the law’ is an element of the concept of ‘Rule of Law’. This concept has the following three elements or aspects:

O Absence of arbitrary power

O Equality before the law that is, equal subjection of all citizens to the ordinary law of the land

O The constitution is the result of the rights of the individual The first and the second elements are applicable to India. This means ‘equality before the law’ under Article 14 connotes the absence of arbitrary power with the authorities. Thus, when a legislation confers uncontrolled discretionary powers on any authority, it tends to violate article 14 of the constitution. In the Jayantilal Kalidas Mehta vs the State of Maharashtra case (1970), some sections were contended that gave unguided, uncontrolled and arbitrary powers to the collector, which were violating Article 14 of the constitution.

Option (b) is not correct: Article 28 is related to the right to freedom of religion. It provides that no religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution wholly maintained out of State funds. Further, no person attending any educational institution recognised by the State or receiving aid out of State funds shall be required to attend any religious instruction or worship in that institution without his consent.

Option (c) is not correct: Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of an aggrieved citizen. Article 32 affirms the right to move the Supreme Court if a fundamental right is violated. Under this article, the Supreme Court can issue writs for the enforcement of any of the fundamental rights of the citizens.

Option (d) is not correct: Article 44 provides for one of the Directive Principles of State Policy. Article 44 says that the “State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India”.

13.A Constitutional government by definition is a (2020)

(a) government by legislature

(b) popular government

(d) limited government

13. Answer: (d) Option (d) is correct:

By the existence of a Constitution, a Constitutional government is defined with a legal instrument or merely a set of fixed norms or principles generally accepted as the fundamental law of the polity that effectively controls or limits the exercise of political power. Hence, it is often termed as ‘limited government’ as well. The essence of Constitutionalism is the control or limit of power by its distribution among several state organs. Constitutional government also refers to a written Constitution guiding the country with mechanisms called checks and balances.

14. Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)? (2020)

1. Preamble

2. Directive Principles of State Policy

3. Fundamental Duties

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

14. Answer: (d)

Statement 1 is correct: As per Article 3 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR), everyone has the right to life, liberty, and security of person. The Preamble mentions the term ‘democratic’ which denotes that the Government gets its authority from the will of the people. It mentioned all are equal “irrespective of the race, religion, language, sex and culture” in this modern era democracy is considered as a human right.

Statement 2 is correct: As per Article 22 of UDHR, everyone, as a member of society, has the right to social security and is entitled to realisation, through national effort and international cooperation and in accordance with the organisation and resources of each State, of the economic, social, and cultural rights indispensable for his dignity and the free development of his personality. The Directive Principles of State Policy of the Indian Constitution bear a close resemblance to the Universal Declaration of Human Rights. Statement 3 is correct: The duties of the individual to the society are both a part of Fundamental Duties mentioned in the Constitution of India and the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.

Elimination Technique: principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights reflect in all the parts of the Constitution of India given above.

15. Which one of the following categories of Fundamental Rights incorporates protection against untouchability as a form of discrimination? (2020)

(a) Right against Exploitation

(b) Right to Freedom

(d) Right to Equality

15. Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct: Article 17 of the Constitution of India abolishes the age-old practice of Untouchability and forbids its practice in any form. Untouchability refers to a social practice that looks down upon certain oppressed classes solely on account of their birth and makes any discrimination against them on this ground. This comes under the Right to Equality (Article 14- 18). The Parliament of India passed the Untouchability (offences) Act in 1955 which came into force 1st June 1955 to make untouchability law further strong. In 1976, this Act was further amended and renamed as Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955.

16. Which part of the Constitution of India declares the ideal of a Welfare State? (2020)

(a) Directive Principles of State Policy

(b) Fundamental Rights

(d) Seventh Schedule

16. Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: Part IV (Article 36-51) of the Constitution of India, deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) which declares the ideal of a Welfare State. DPSP aims to create a socio-economic condition where the citizens of the State can lead a good life and establish socio-economic democracy through a welfare state. Article 38 of the Constitution of India mentions that:

O The State shall strive to promote the welfare of the people by securing and protecting as effectively as it may a social order in which justice, social, economic, and political, shall inform all the institutions of national life.

O The State shall, in particular, strive to minimise the inequalities in income, and endeavour to eliminate inequalities in status, facilities and opportunities, not only amongst individuals but also amongst groups of people residing in different areas or engaged in different vocations.

17. Consider the following statements: (2020)

1. The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy.

2. The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the ‘citizens’ liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

17. Answer: (d)

Statement 1 is not correct:

The Indian Constitution does not define the term ‘basic structure’. It is a judicial tool that was coined by the Supreme Court of India in the Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala (1973) landmark judgement.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The judicial review doctrine is based on the principle of rule of law and separation of powers. Judicial review is the process for testing and balancing the separation of powers. The Concept of Judicial Review is the basic principle of the Constitution in India. Although there is no explicit provision in the Indian Constitution for judicial review, it is an integral part of our Constitution.

Elimination Technique: Indian Constitution does not define ‘basic structure’. It was coined by the Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

18. One common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is (2020)

(a) the final goal of a stateless society

(b) class struggle

(d) economic determinism

18. Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: There is a great similarity between Mahatma Gandhi and Karl Marx. However, while the final aim of both is the establishment of a stateless and classless society, their means for achieving this aim are different. For Mahatma Gandhi, in an ideal state, there is no State which he wanted to achieve through non-violent means but Marx, who saw State is an instrument of oppression and an organ of the bourgeoisie that only works for maintaining the class dominance, wanted a stateless society by striving for class struggle and revolution.

19. The Preamble to the Constitution of India is (2020)

(a) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect

(b) not a part of the Constitution and has no legal effect either

(d) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts

19. Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct: The Constitution of India begins with a Preamble. The Preamble contains the ideals, objectives, and basic principles of the Constitution. Preamble is a part of Indian Constitution, and it certainly does not have a legal effect independently since it cannot be enforced in a court of law. It acts as an aid during the interpretation of other Articles when the language is found ambiguous. Therefore, it begets some kind of legal effect when read along with the Constitution, not independent from it. In the Berubari Union case 1960, the Supreme Court held that, “Preamble is not a part of the Constitution”. Later, in the Kesavananda Bharati Vs. State of Kerala 1973 case, the Supreme Court ruled that “Preamble is a part of the Constitution and can be amended” as any other provisions of the Constitution, provided the basic structure of the Constitution is not destroyed. In the Union Government Vs. LIC of India case 1995, the Supreme Court has once again held that Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution but is not directly enforceable in a court of justice in India.

20. With reference to the provisions contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2020)

1. They shall be enforceable by courts.

2. They shall not be enforceable by any court.

3. The principles laid down in this part areto influence the making of laws by the state.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

20. Answer: (d)

Statement 1 is not correct and Statement 2 is correct:

Article 37 deals with the application of the principles contained in Part-IV (Directive Principles of States Policy) of the Indian Constitution. The provisions contained in this Part shall not be enforced by any court.

Statement 3 is correct: The provisions contained in this Part shall not be enforced by any court, but the principles therein laid down are nevertheless fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws. Elimination Technique: Directive Principles are not enforced by any courts. Hence, statement 1 is not correct and 2 is correct.

21. Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void? (2019)

(a) Third Schedule

(b) Fifth Schedule

(d) Twelfth Schedule

21. Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct: The Fifth Schedule contains provisions in relation to the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes. The purpose of Scheduled Areas, as also recognised in several judgments, is to preserve the tribal autonomy, their culture and economic empowerment. It was further fortified by the Samatha Vs. State of Andhra Pradesh & Ors (1997) judgement where the Supreme Court declared that the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining was null and void under the Fifth Schedule.

Additional Information:

Only the President of India has the power to declare an area as Scheduled Area by order and can also declare a scheduled area to cease to be known as scheduled area. Further, the President can also by order alter the boundaries of the scheduled areas. However, to change the boundary of a scheduled area, the President is required to consult the Governor of the state in which the area is located. No separate law

act is needed to establish, change boundaries or discontinue a scheduled area.

22. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of: (2019)

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru

(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri

(d) Morarji Desai

22. Answer: (a)

The Ninth Schedule of the Constitution contains a list of Central and State laws which cannot be challenged in courts. Currently, 284 laws are protected from judicial review. However, the Supreme Court in 2007 held that laws in the Ninth Schedule are also open to judicial scrutiny.

Option (a) is correct: The Ninth Schedule was introduced by the 1st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951 during the Prime Ministership of Jawaharlal Nehru.

Additional Information:

Most of the laws protected under the Schedule concern agriculture/land issues, the list includes other subjects, such as reservation, for example, a Tamil Nadu law that provides 69 per cent reservation in the state is part of this Schedule.

23. Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice? (2019)

(a) Article 19

(b) Article 21

(d) Article 29

23. Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct: In 2018, the Supreme Court in Hadiya Marriage case has held that the Right to Marry a person of one’s choice is integral to Article 21 (Right to Life and Liberty) of the Constitution. Article 21 declares that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law. This right is available to both citizens and non-citizens. The protection under Article 21 is available not only against arbitrary executive action but also against arbitrary legislative action.

24. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a (2017)

(a) Fundamental Right

(b) Natural Right

(d) Legal Right

24. Answer: (c)

All Indian citizens who are eligible to vote are given a chance to exercise their franchise and participate in the electoral process. The Indian Constitution has granted the right to vote to all Indian citizens of sound mind above the age of 18, irrespective of an individual’s caste, religion, social or economic status.

Option (c) is correct: Justice Chelameswar and Justice Abhay Manohar Sapre in the Rajbala case for Haryana PRI elections (2015) held that the right to vote and right to contest at an election to a Panchayat are Constitutional Rights. Also, the provisions in the Constitution of India shed light on this matter:

O Article 326: Elections to the House of the People and to the Legislative Assemblies of States to be on the basis of adult suffrage. The elections to the House of the People and to the Legislative Assembly of every State shall be on the basis of adult suffrage; but is to say, every person who is a citizen of India and who is not less than twenty one years of age on such date as may be fixed in that behalf by or under any law made by the appropriate legislature and is not otherwise disqualified under this constitution or any law made by the appropriate Legislature on the ground of non-residence, unsoundness of mind, crime or corrupt or illegal practice, shall be entitled to be registered as a voter at any such election.

O Article 327: Power of Parliament to make provision with respect to elections to Legislatures Subject to the provisions of the Constitution, Parliament may from time to time by law made provision with respect to all matters relating to, or in connection with, elections to either House of Parliament or to the House or either House of the Legislature of a State including the preparation of electoral rolls, the delimitation of constituencies and all other matters necessary for securing the due constitution of such House or Houses.

25. Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India? (2017)

1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour

2. Abolition of untouchability

3. Protection of the interests of minorities

4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

25. Answer: (c)

The Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution from Articles 12 to 35. It also provides for Rights Against Exploitation in Article 23 to 24.

Option (c) is correct: Article 23 prohibits trafficking in human beings, beggars (forced labour) and other forms of forced labour.

O This right is available to both citizens and non-citizens.

O It protects individuals not only against the state but also against private persons.

O Exception to Article 23: It permits the state to impose compulsory service for public purposes, for example, military service or social service, for which it is not bound to pay. Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in any factory, mine or other hazardous activities like construction work or railways. However, it does not prohibit their employment in any harmless or innocent work.

Additional Information:

O Abolition of Untouchability (Article 17) is under the Right to Equality.

O Protection of interests of Minorities (Article 29) is under Cultural and Educational Rights. EliminationTechnique:Fundamental Rights provides for Rights Against Exploitation in Article 23 to 24. Hence, statement 2 and 3 (Abolition of untouchability and Protection of the interests of minorities) are not correct.

26. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism? (2017)

(a) There is an independent judiciary in India.

(b) Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.

(d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.

26. Answer: (d)

The Constitution of India provides for a federal system of government in the country. However, the term ‘Federation’ has nowhere been mentioned in the Constitution. Article 1 of the Constitution describes India as a ‘Union of States’. According to B.R. Ambedkar, the phrase ‘Union of States’ has been preferred to ‘Federation of States’ to indicate two things:

O The Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement among the states like the American Federation. (Option (d) is correct)

O The states have no right to secede from the federation. Federal Features of the Constitution:

O Independent Judiciary: Constitution establishes an independent judiciary headed by the Supreme Court. It is maintained through measures like the security of tenure of judges, fixed service conditions.

O Division of Powers: The Constitution clearly divided the powers between the centre

and the states in terms of the Union List, the State List and the Concurrent List in the Seventh Schedule. The subjects not mentioned in any of the lists are a part of the Residuary list, controlled by the centre.

O Bicameralism: Two houses have been provided, the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. States are given representation in the Rajya Sabha on the basis of their population

27. Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen? (2017)

1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.

2. They are correlative to legal duties.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

27. Answer: (d) Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the Constitution at the suggestion of the Swaran Singh Committee in the year 1976 through the 42nd amendment. Later in 2002, one more fundamental duty was added. There are, in total, 11 Fundamental Duties enshrined in Article 51 A of the Constitution.

Statement 1 is not correct: Though recommended by the Committee, no legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties. They are non-justiciable in nature, like the Directive Principles.

Statement 2 is not correct: One cannot move to the court if fundamental duties are violated; hence there is no legal sanction against their violation and are not correlative to legal duties.

28. Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India? (2017)

(a) Liberty of thought

(b) Economic liberty

(d) Liberty of belief

28. Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct: Economic Liberty is not embodied in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution. It provides for the liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship. The Preamble of Indian Constitution: WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens: JUSTICE, social, economic, and political LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship EQUALITY of status and of opportunity and topromote among them all FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twentysixth day of November 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION

29. In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties? (2017)

(a) Rights are correlative with Duties.

(b) Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties.

(d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State.

29 Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: The Rights and Duties of the citizens are correlative and inseparable. Rights are what we want others to do for us, whereas duties are those acts which we should perform for others. Thus, a right comes with an obligation to show respect for the rights of others. The obligations that accompany rights are in the form of duties. Our duties and the consequences we bear for failing to keep them therefore exist as a self contained whole. They follow a simple logic: that peaceful co-existence requires a degree of self-sacrifice, and that, if necessary, this must be enforced through the set of sanctions. Rights, on the other hand, follow a different principle entirely. The twin principles of anti dehumanisation and anti-hierarchy reveal the transformative purpose of the fundamental rights chapter: the recognition that true democracy could not exist without ensuring that at a basic level, the dignity and equality of individuals was protected, both from the state as well as from social majorities. It was only with these guarantees could an individual rise from the status of subject to that of citizen.

30.One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of (2017)

(a) Privileges

(b) Restraints

(d) Ideology

30. Answer:(a) Option (a) is correct: The term ‘equality’ means the absence of special privileges to any section of the society and the provision of adequate opportunities for all individuals without any discrimination. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution secures all citizens of India equality of status and opportunity. This provision embraces three dimensions of equality: civic, political, and economic. The very idea can be found in Article 18 of the Indian Constitution, which states, “Abolition of titles No title, not being a military or academic distinction, shall be conferred by the State No citizen of India shall accept any title from any foreign State No person who is not a citizen of India shall, while he holds any office of profit or trust under the State, accept without the consent of the President any title from any foreign State No person holding any office of profit or trust under the State shall, without the consent of the President, accept any present, emolument, or office of any kind from or under any foreign State Right to Freedom”.

31. Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution? (2017)

(a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women

(b) Participation of workers in the management of industries

(d) Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers

31. Answer: (b)

Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution from Articles 36 to 51. This idea of DPSP was borrowed from the Irish Constitution. Dr B.R. Ambedkar described them as ‘Novel features’ of the Indian Constitution. The Directive Principles, along with the Fundamental Rights, contain the philosophy of the Constitution and is the soul of the Constitution. The Directive Principles are non-justiciable in nature; that is, they are not legally enforceable. Therefore, the government cannot be compelled to implement them, but they help the courts in examining the Constitutional validity of a law Option (b) is correct: The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 included four new Directive Principles to the original list. They require the State:

O To secure opportunities for the healthy development of children (Article 39).

O To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A)

O To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A).

O To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife (Article 48 A)

32. Consider the following statements: (2017) With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon

1. legislative function.

2. executive function.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

32. Answer: (d)

Statement 1 is not correct: The Directive Principles of State Policy confer no legal rights, create no legal remedies and are nonjusticiable in nature. Therefore, the government (centre, state, local) cannot be compelled to implement them. Hence, it does not limit the legislative function.

Statement 2 is not correct: Directive Principles do not constitute limitations on the government because they are not enforceable. However, Fundamental Rights operate as limitations on the tyranny of the executive and the legislature.

33. Which one of the following statements is correct? (2017)

(a) Rights are claims of the State against the citizens.

(b) Rights are privileges that are incorporated in the Constitution of a State.

(d) Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many.

33. Answer: ©

Option (c) is correct: Rights are legal and moral entitlements or claims of any citizen over other fellow beings, over society and over the government (State). In most cases, the claimed rights are directed towards the state, i.e., through these rights, people make demands upon the state. A democracy must ensure that individuals have certain rights, and that the government will always recognise these rights. Therefore, it is often a practice in most democratic countries to list the rights of the citizens in the Constitution itself. Such a list of rights mentioned and protected by the Constitution is called the ‘bill of rights’. A bill of rights prohibits the government from thus acting against the rights of the individuals and ensures a remedy in case there is violation of these rights.

34. The ideal of “Welfare State” in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its (2015)

(a) Preamble

(b) Directive Principles of State Policy

(d) Seventh Schedule

34. Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct: The Directive Principles of State Policy constitute a very comprehensive economic, social and political program for a modern democratic State. They embody the concept of a ‘Welfare State’. In brief, they seek to establish economic and social democracy in the country.According to Dr B.R. Ambedkar, the Directive Principles of State Policy is a ‘novel feature’ of the Indian Constitution. They are enumerated in Part IV of the Indian Constitution.
Principles seeking a Welfare State:

O Article 38: To promote the welfare of the people by securing a social order permeated by justice–social, economic and political and to minimise inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities

O Article 39: To secure the right to adequate means of livelihood for all citizens; the equitable distribution of material resources of the community for the common good; prevention of concentration of wealth and means of production; equal pay for equal work for men and women; preservation of the health and strength of workers and children against forcible abuse; and opportunities for the healthy development of children.

O Article 39A: To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor.

O Article 41: To secure the right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement.

O Article 42: To make provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief.

O Article 43: To secure a living wage, a decent standard of life and social and cultural opportunities for all workers.

O Article 43A: To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries.

O Article 47: To raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living of people and to improve public health.

35. “To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India” is a provision made in the (2015)

(a) Preamble of the Constitute

(b) Directive Principles of State Policy

(d) Fundamental Duties

35. Answer: (d)

The provisions to uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India are made in the Fundamental Duties (Part IV-A of the Indian Constitution). In 1976, the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee was set up to make recommendations about Fundamental Duties. In the same year, the Fundamental Duties of citizens were added in the Constitution. Later, in 2002, one more Fundamental Duty was added.

According to Article 51A, it shall be the duty of every citizen of India:

O To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem.

O To cherish and follow the noble ideals that inspired the national struggle for freedom.

O To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India. [Option (d) is correct]

O To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.

O To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities and to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.

O To value and preserve the rich heritage of the country’s composite culture.

O To protect and improve the natural environment, including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife and to have compassion for living creatures.

O To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.

O To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.

O To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement.

O To provide opportunities for education to his child or ward, between the age of six and fourteen years. This duty was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002.

36.The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to (2015)

(a) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes

(b) determine the boundaries between states

(d) protect the interests of all the border States

36. Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes.

O Article 244 in Part X of the Constitution envisages a special system of administration for certain areas designated as Scheduled Areas and Tribal Areas. The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in any state except the four states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.

O The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution, on the other hand, deals with the administration of the Tribal Areas in the four northeastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.

37. Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy: (2015)

1. The Principles spell out the socioeconomic democracy in the country.

2. The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

37. Answer: (c)

The phrase ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’ denotes the ideals that the State should keep in mind while formulating policies and enacting laws. The Directive Principles resemble the ‘Instrument of Instructions’ enumerated in the Government of India Act of 1935. Statement 1 is correct: The Directive Principles constitute a very comprehensive economic, social and political program for a modern democratic State. They aim at realising the high ideals of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as outlined in the Preamble to the Constitution. They embody the concept of a ‘welfare state’ and not that of a ‘police state’, which existed during the colonial era. In brief, they seek to establish economic and social democracy in the country.

Statement 2 is correct: The Directive Principles are non-justiciable in nature; that is, they are not legally enforceable by the courts for their violation. Therefore, the government (Central, State and local) cannot be compelled to implement them.

38. Consider the following statements: A Constitutional Government is one which (2014)

1. A Constitutional Government is one which places the effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority.

2. Places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

38. Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is not correct: A Constitutional Government can place restrictions on individual liberty but not in the interest of State Authority but for greater good of greater numbers. In the case of India, the Fundamental Rights are not absolute but qualified. The State can impose reasonable restrictions on them. However, whether such restrictions are reasonable or not is to be decided by the Courts. Thus, they strike a balance between the rights of the individual and those of the society as a whole, between individual liberty and social control.

Statement 2 is correct: A Constitutional Government is one that derives its power, function and authority from a written document i.e., Constitution. Such a Government is characterised by limitations of power. A Constitutional Government does not exercise unrestricted power rather its authority is subjected to effective restrictions. The Constitution imposes restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty. In India, Fundamental Rights are available to citizens against the arbitrary action of the State.

39. In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in the: (2014)

(a) Preamble of the Constitution

(b) Directive Principles of State Policy

(d) Ninth Schedule

39. Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct: Promotion of international peace and security is included in Article 51 of the Directive Principles of States Policy (DPSP), Part IV of the Indian Constitution.

O DPSP asks the government to promote international peace and security and maintain just and honourable relations between nations, to foster respect for international law and treaty obligations, and to encourage the settlement of international disputes by arbitration.

O DPSP denotes the ideals that the States Should keep in mind while formulating policies and enacting laws. These are the Constitutional instructions or recommendations to the State in legislative, executive, and administrative matters. Dr B R Ambedkar described these principles as ‘novel features’ of the Indian Constitution.

40.‘Economic Justice’ as one of the objectives of Indian Constitution has been provided in (2013)

(a) The Preamble and Fundamental Rights

(b) The Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy

(d) None of the above

40.Answer: (b)

Economic justice denotes the nondiscrimination between people on the basis of economic factors. It involves the elimination of glaring inequalities in wealth, income, and property. A combination of Social Justice and Economic Justice denotes what is known as ‘distributive justice’.

Option (b) is correct: ‘Economic Justice’ as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution that has been provided in the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy.

O The Preamble of the Indian Constitution talks about Social, Economic, and Political Justice. The Directive Principles of State Policy of the Indian Constitution lay down the framework of a democratic socialist state, aim at providing social and Economic Justice, and set the path towards welfare state.

O Article 38 states that the State shall strive to promote the welfare of the people by securing and protecting as effectively as it may a social order in which justice, social, economic and political, shall inform all the institutions of social life.

O Similarly, Article 39 states that the Right to adequate means of livelihood for all citizens, equal pay for equal work for both men and women.

41. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country? (2013)

(a) Fundamental Rights

(b) Fundamental Duties

(d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties

41. Answer: (c)

Option (c) is correct: Though the Directive Principles are non-justiciable, the Constitution (Article 37) makes it clear that ‘these principles are fundamental in the governance of the country, and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws. Thus, they impose a moral obligation on the State Authorities for their application. In the Minerva Mills case (1980), the Supreme Court held that the Indian Constitution is founded on the bedrock of the balance between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles.

42. Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India: (2012)

1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code

2. Organising village Panchayats

3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas

4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities

Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

42. Answer: (b) ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’ denotes the ideals that the State should keep in mind while formulating policies and enacting laws. Gandhian principles and ideals have a huge influence on Constituent Assembly members.

Directive Principles of States Policy that reflects Gandhian principles are as follows:

O To organise village panchayats and endow them with necessary powers and authority to enable them to function as units of self government (Article 40). (Statement 2 is correct)

O To promote cottage industries on an individual or co-operation basis in rural areas (Article 43). (Statement 3 is correct)

O To promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control, and professional management of co-operative societies 8a (Article 43B).

O To promote the educational and economic interests of SCs, STs, and other weaker sections of the society and to protect them from social injustice and exploitation (Article 46).

O To prohibit the consumption of intoxicating drinks and drugs which are injurious to health (Article 47).

O To prohibit the slaughter of cows, calves and other milch and draught cattle and to improve their breeds (Article 48).

43. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education? (2012)

1. Directive Principles of State Policy

2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies

3. Fifth Schedule

4. Sixth Schedule

5. Seventh Schedule

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3, 4 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

43. Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct: Provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education are:

O Directive Principles of State Policy: Directive Principles of State Policy denotes the ideals that the State should keep in mind while formulating policies and enacting laws. Article 45 of DPSP says to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years (Article 45).

O Rural and Urban Local Bodies: Eleventh Schedule contains a comprehensive list of items in regard to which a state is required to endow powers, authorities and responsibilities to Panchayat in order to enable them to function as institutions of self-governance. Item 17 of the Eleventh Schedule talks of education including primary and secondary schools.

O Fifth Schedule: The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes in any state except the four states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.

O Sixth Schedule: The Constitution, under Sixth Schedule, contains special provisions for the administration of tribal areas in the four north-eastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. The District Council in these four states can establish, construct or manage primary schools, dispensaries, markets, ferries, fisheries, roads and so on in the district.

O Seventh Schedule: The Constitution provides for a three-fold distribution of legislative subjects between the Centre and the states, viz., List-I (the Union List), List-II (the State List) and List-III (the Concurrent List) in the Seventh Schedule. Earlier education as an item was present in the state list. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 transferred education to Concurrent List from State List

44.Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution? (2012)

1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture

2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice

3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry

4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

44.Answer: (c)

The Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution are inspired by the Constitution of erstwhile USSR. Notably, none of the Constitutions of major democratic countries like the USA, Canada, France, Germany, Australia and so on specifically contain a list of duties of citizens. The Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the Constitution of India with the enactment of the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act in 1976. Such incorporation is based on the recommendation of the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee, created in 1976 by the Congress Party. This amendment added a new part, namely, Part IVA to the Constitution. This new part consists of only one Article, that is, Article 51A which for the first time specified a code of ten fundamental duties of the citizens.

Option (c) is correct: According to Article 51 A, it shall be the duty of every citizen of India:

O To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem.

O To cherish and follow the noble ideals that inspired the national struggle for freedom.

O To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.

O To defend the country and render national service called upon to do so.

O To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic, and regional or sectional diversities and to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.

O To value and preserve the rich heritage of the country’s composite culture.

O To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife and to have compassion for living creatures.

O To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.

O To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.

O To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement.

O To provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years. This duty was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002.

45. Consider the following: (2011)

1. Right to education

2. Right to equal access to public service

3. Right to food

Which of the above is/are Human Right/ Human Rights under “Universal Declaration of Human Rights”?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

45. Answer: (d)

On 10 December 1948, the General Assembly of the United Nations announced the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) – 30 rights and freedoms of all human beings.

Statement 1 is correct: Article 26 of UDHR states that everyone has the right to education. Education shall be free, at least in the elementary and fundamental stages.

Statement 2 is Correct: Article 21 of UDHR states that everyone has the right of equal access to public service in the country.

Statement 3 is correct: Article 25 of UDHR states that everyone has the right to a standard of living adequate for the health and well-being of himself and of his family, including food, clothing, housing and medical care and necessary social services, and the right to security in the event of unemployment, sickness, disability, widowhood, old age or other lack of livelihood in circumstances beyond his control.

46. Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a Fundamental Duty? (2011)

(a) To vote in public elections

(b) To develop the scientific temper

(d) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals

46.Answer: (a)

In 1976, the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee was set up to make recommendations about Fundamental Duties. In 1976, the Fundamental Duties of citizens were added in the Constitution. Later, in 2002, one more Fundamental Duty was added. According to Article 51A, it shall be the duty of every citizen of India:

O to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem

o cherish and follow the noble ideals that inspired the national struggle for freedom

O to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India

O to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so

O to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities and to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women

O to value and preserve the rich heritage of the country’s composite culture y to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife and to have compassion for living creatures

O to develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform y to safeguard public property and to abjure violence y to strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement O to provide opportunities for education to his child or ward, between the age of six and fourteen years. This Duty was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002. Elimination Technique: To vote in public elections is not a Fundamental Duty.

Legislature

1. Consider the following statements : (2023)

Statement-I :

In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.

Statement-II:

In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but StatementII is correct

1. Answer: (a)

Statement 1 is correct: Entry no 4 of the state list under the seventh schedule identifies Prisons to be an exclusive subject competent only for the state legislatures to enact laws on. Statement 2 is correct: The management and administration of Prisons falls exclusively in the domain of the State Governments and is governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 and the Prison Manuals of the respective State Governments. Hence it is true that the Prisons Act 1894 kept the subject of prisons in the Provincial government (State governments) and this explains why State governments have the power to frame their own rules and regulations regarding prison management.

2. With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements : (2023)

1. When the Lok Sabha transmits the Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.

2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.

3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for the Finance Bill.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

2. Answer: (B) Statement 1 is incorrect: A finance bill is a part of the budgetary law making process which equates the finance bill as that to a money bill.

Statement 2 is correct: Rajya sabha can only make recommendations and not amendments or rejections to a money bill.

Statement 3 is correct: Though the Finance bill is a type of money bill and there is no provision of joint sitting for money as well as the Finance bill. But as per official answer key most probably this statement has been considered as correct.

3. With reference to ‘Scheduled Areas’ in India, consider the following statements : (2023)

1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.

2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.

3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

3. Answer: (b)

According to Article 342(1) of the Indian Constitution, the President, after consultation with the Governor, may by public notification specify the tribes or tribal communities or parts of or groups within tribes or tribal communities which shall for the purposes of the Constitution be deemed to be Scheduled Tribes in relation to that State. Hence statement 1 is correct

• The administrative units of a Scheduled Area can range from a whole district or part of it to specific blocks or a cluster of villages.

• The exact demarcation of these areas is determined on the basis of tribal population, their economic and social development status, and other similar factors. Hence statement 2 is correct

• According to the provisions of the Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, the Governors of the states having Scheduled Areas are required to submit a report to the President, not to the Union Home Ministry, regarding the administration of the Scheduled Areas in their respective states. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

4. With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements : (2022)

1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.

2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.

3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.

4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 4 only

4. Answer: (a) Statement 1 is correct RULES OF PROCEDURE AND CONDUCT OF BUSINESS IN LOK SABHA: The election of a Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix, and the Secretary-General shall send to every member notice of this date.

Statement 2 is incorrect RULES OF PROCEDURE AND CONDUCT OF BUSINESS IN LOK SABHA: At any time before noon on the day preceding the date so fixed, any member may give notice in writing, addressed to the Secretary-General, of a motion that another member be chosen as the Deputy Speaker of the House and the notice shall be seconded by a third member and shall be accompanied by a statement by the member whose name is proposed in the notice that the member proposed is willing to serve as Deputy Speaker. Statement 3 is correct RULES OF PROCEDURE AND CONDUCT OF BUSINESS IN LOK SABHA: The Deputy Speaker or any other member competent to preside over a sitting of the House under the Constitution or these rules shall, when so presiding, have the same powers as the Speaker when so presiding and all references to the Speaker in these rules shall in these circumstances be deemed to be references to any such person so presiding. Statement 4 is incorrect RULES OF PROCEDURE AND CONDUCT OF BUSINESS IN LOK SABHA: The motions which have been moved and duly seconded shall be put one by one in the order in which they have been moved, and decided, if necessary, by division. If any motion is carried, the person presiding shall, without putting later motions, declare that the member proposed in the motion which has been carried, has been chosen as the Deputy Speaker of the House.

5. With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements : (2022)

1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.

2. The law does not provide any timeframe within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

5. Answer: (b) Statement 1 is not correct: Schedule 10: A nominated member of a House shall be disqualified for being a member of the House if he joins any political party after the expiry of six months from the date on which he takes his seat after complying with the requirements of Article 99 or, as the case may be, Article 188.

Statement 2 is correct: Schedule 10: If any question arises as to whether a member of a House has become subject to disqualification under this Schedule, the question shall be referred for the decision of the Chairman or, as the case may be, the Speaker of such House and his decision shall be final.

6. Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha ? (2022)

1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency

2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers

3. To impeach the President of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only

6. Answer: (b) Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 352: Every Proclamation issued under this article shall be laid before each House of Parliament Article 356: Every Proclamation under this article shall be laid before each House of Parliament. Article 360: A Proclamation issued under this shall be laid before each House of Parliament.

Statement 2 is correct: Article 75(3): The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 61: When a President is to be impeached for violation of the Constitution, the charge shall be preferred by either House of Parliament. Impeachment resolution must be passed by both the houses separately 2/3rd votes of total membership.

7. Consider the following statements : (2022)

1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.

2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.

3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

7. Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is not correct: Constitution Amendment Bills are not treated as Money Bills or Financial Bills. Accordingly, the President’s recommendation under Articles 117 and 274 of the Constitution with regard to these Bills is not asked for.

Statement 2 is correct: Article 368: Notwithstanding anything in this Constitution, Parliament may in exercise of its constituent power amend by way of addition, variation or repeal any provision of this Constitution in accordance with the procedure laid down in this Article. An amendment of this Constitution may be initiated only by the introduction of a Bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament, and when the Bill is passed in each House by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting, it shall be presented to the President who shall give his assent to the Bill and thereupon the Constitution shall stand amended in accordance with the terms of the Bill.

Statement 3 is correct: In case of any disagreement between the two Houses of Parliament on a Constitution Amendment Bill, there cannot be a joint sitting of the Houses of Parliament on the Bill as article 368 of the Constitution requires each House to pass the Bill by the prescribed special majority

8. Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before the Parliament which include ‘The Macro Economic Framework Statement’. The aforesaid document is presented because this is mandated by (2020)

(a) Long standing parliamentary convention

(b) Article 112 and Article 110 (1) of the Constitution of India

(d) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003

8. Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct: The Macro Economic Framework Statement is presented to the Parliament as mandated by the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act,2003. The FRBM Rules came into force from July 5, 2004. Every year, a macro-economic framework statement is presented before Parliament at the time of the Union Budget presentation. This is under Section 3(5) of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003. The FRBM Act instructs the government to assess growth prospects for the economy with regards to specific underlying assumptions. The statement contains an overview of the economy. This includes an assessment regarding the GDP growth rate, fiscal balance of the central government and the external sector balance of the economy.

9. A Parliamentary System of Government is one in which (2020)

(a) all political parties in the Parliament are represented in the Government

(b) the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it

(d) the Government is chosen by the Parliament but cannot be removed by it before completion of a fixed-term

9. Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct: In a Parliamentary System of Government, the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it. The Government is responsible collectively to the Lok Sabha and it stays in power as long as it enjoys the confidence of the House. The Government can be removed by the House if a No-Confidence Motion is passed. There are two forms of Government, Parliamentary and Presidential. In the Parliamentary System, the political party winning the majority seats in the Parliament makes the Government and elects a person from among themselves as the Prime Minister who is the Head of the Government. In this system, the legislative and executive body of Government are closely related, while the judiciary is independent of the other two bodies of Government. The executive is accountable to the legislature.

10. Consider the following statements: (2020)

1. According to the Constitution of India, a person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a state for six months even if he/she is not a member of the Legislature of that state.

2. According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

10. Answer: (d)

Statement 1 is incorrect: This statement is misleading because it suggests that merely being eligible to vote qualifies someone to be appointed as a minister. However, the Constitution requires that a person must also meet the age criteria for being a member of the state legislature (25 years for the Legislative Assembly and 30 years for the Legislative Council) to be eligible for such an appointment. Moreover, they must become a member of the legislature within six months to continue in the ministerial position. Therefore, the statement is incorrect as it omits crucial information regarding eligibility.

Statement 2 is not correct: Section 8 of RPA, 1951 states the grounds for disqualification on conviction of certain offences pursuant to Section 8 of RPA, 1951, in case the candidate is convicted of certain offences specified and sentenced for imprisonment for not less than two years then the person will be disqualified to contest the election from the date of the conviction and will continue to be disqualified for further six years even after the release.

11. Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in (2020)

(a) the matter of creating new All India Services

(b) amending the Constitution

(d) making cut motions

11. Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct: Both Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha have the powers to amend the Constitution. To amend the Constitution a bill may originate either in the Rajya Sabha or in the Lok Sabha. The amendment cannot be effective unless it is passed by both the Houses with the required majority. The procedure of amendment in the Constitution is laid down in Part XX (Article 368) of the Constitution of India.

Additional Information:

O With regards to the creation of All India Services, Rajya Sabha has special powers (Article 312) such that if Rajya Sabha is passing a resolution by a majority of 2/3rd of the members present and voting, Parliament may, by law, create one or more All India Services in national interest.

O As per Article 75, the Government (Council of Ministers) is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. Therefore, Lok Sabha has greater power as compared to Rajya Sabha.

O Cut Motions, which are meant to reduce the amount allocated to the ministries in the demand for grants, can be made only in Lok Sabha. Rajya Sabha can only make recommendations in this regard.

12. Consider the following statements: (2019)

1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.

2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.

3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

12. Answer: (a)

Statement 1 is correct: The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.

The posts are:

O Ministers in the Government of India and States.

O Whips in the Parliament.

O Parliamentary Secretary and Under Secretaries.

O Officers of the National Cadet Corps and the Territorial Army.

O Chairman and Members of Advisory Committees set up by the Government.

Statement 2 is correct: This act has been amended five times 1960, 1992, 1993, 2006 and in 2013.

Statement 3 is not correct: The word ‘office’ has not been defined in the Constitution or the Representation of the People Act of 1951. But the definition has evolved over the years with interpretations made in various court judgments. An office of profit has been interpreted to be a position that brings to the office-holder some financial gain, or advantage, or benefit. The amount of such profit is immaterial. In 1964, the Supreme Court ruled that the test for determining whether a person holds an office of profit is the test of appointment. Several factors are considered in this determination which are as follows:

O whether the government is the appointing authority,

O whether the government has the power to terminate the appointment,

O whether the government determines the remuneration,

O what is the source of remuneration, and

O the power that comes with the position.

13. Consider the following statements: (2018)

1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.

2. In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognised for the first time in 1969.

3. In the Lok Sabha, if the party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the leader of opposition.

Which of the following statements given is/ are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

13. Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is not correct: The first Lok Sabha elections in India were held in 1951-52. Indian National Congress won with the sweeping majority scoring 364 out of 489 seats. The Communist Party of India emerged as the largest party in the opposition winning a total of 16 seats. The Swatantra Party on the other hand was formed in 1959. It was founded by C. Rajagopalachari who was dissatisfied with the Indian National Congress’s socialist agenda. Statement 2 is correct: In parliamentary form government the Leader of the Opposition has a significant role to play. His function involves providing constructive criticism of government policies. In 1969, when Indira Gandhi was the Prime Minister, the Congress split to form the Indian National Congress (Requisitionists) and the Indian National Congress (Organisation). The Leader of INC(O), Ram Subhag Singh, became the first person to be formally recognised as LoP in the Lok Sabha. Leaders of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha were accorded statutory recognition in 1977.

Statement 3 is not correct: The leader of the largest opposition party having not less than one-tenth seats of the total strength of the house is recognised as the Leader of the Opposition in that house.

Elimination Technique: The Swatantra Party was formed in 1959 and first Lok Sabha elections were held in 1951-52. The leader of the largest opposition party having not less than one-tenth seats of the total strength of the house is recognised as the Leader of the Opposition in that house.

14. Consider the following statements: (2018)

1. Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.

2. The validity of law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no Judgement can be made on it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

14. Answer: (a)

Statement 1 is correct: The Ninth Schedule contains a list of central and state laws. The Schedule became a part of the Constitution in 1951 when the document was amended for the first time. It was created by the new article 31B, which along with 31A were inserted in the Constitution to protect laws related to agrarian reforms and for abolishing the Zamindari system. At present there are around 284 laws in the Ninth Schedule. Thus, the Parliament can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.

Statement 2 is not correct: In a significant judgement delivered in I.R. Coelho case (2007), the Supreme Court ruled that there could not be any blanket immunity from judicial review of laws included in the Ninth Schedule. The court held that judicial review is a ‘basic feature’ of the Constitution, and it could not be taken away by putting a law in the Ninth Schedule.

15. With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinises and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executives within the scope of such delegation? (2018)

(a) Committee on Government Assurances

(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation

(d) Business Advisory Committee

15. Answer: (b)

Parliament performs varied, complex, and voluminous functions. But it neither has the adequate time nor necessary expertise to make a detailed scrutiny of all legislative measures and other matters. Therefore, it is assisted by a number of Parliamentary Committees in the discharge of its duties.

Option (b) is correct: The Committee on Subordinate Legislation examines and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules delegated by the Parliament or conferred by the Constitution to the Executive are being properly exercised by it. In both the Houses, the Committee consists of 15 members. It was constituted in 1953.

16. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement? (2018)

(a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd amendment to the Constitution.

(b) Article 17 and the Directive Principle of the State Policy in Part IV

(d) Article 24 and provisions under the 44th Amendments to the Constitution

16. Answer: (c)

Option (c) is correct:

The Supreme Court in the case of Puttaswamy vs Union of India (2017) delivered the landmark judgement where it upheld the Right to Privacy as a Fundamental Right protected under Part III of the Indian Constitution. The Supreme Court held that “Right to Privacy” is an integral part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty guaranteed in Article 21 of the Constitution. The Right to Privacy was reinforced by the concurring opinions of the judges who recognized that the Right to Privacy includes autonomy over personal decisions, as in beef consumption; bodily integrity, as in reproductive rights; and protection of personal information, as in the privacy of health records.

17. Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct? (2018)

(a) A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions related to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.

(b) A Money Bill has the provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.

(d) A Money Bill deals with the regulations of borrowings of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.

17. Answer: (c) Option (c) is correct:

Article 110 of the Constitution deals with the definition of Money Bills. It states that a bill is deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains ‘only’ provisions dealing with all or any of the following matters:

O The imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of any tax.

O The regulation of the borrowing of money by the Union government.

O The custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India, the payment of money into or the withdrawal of money from any such fund.

O The appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India.

O Declaration of any expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India or increasing the amount of any such expenditure.

O The receipt of money on account of the Consolidated Fund of India or the public account of India or the custody or issue of such money, or the audit of the accounts of the Union or of a state.

O Any matter incidental to any of the matters specified above.

18. Consider the following statements: (2018)

1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.

2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/ her office immediately.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

18. Answer: (a)

Statement 1 is correct: The Speaker is elected by the assembly itself from amongst its members. Usually, the Speaker remains in office during the life of the Assembly. However, he/ she vacates his/her office earlier if he ceases to be a member of the Assembly, if he resigns by writing to the deputy speaker, or if he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the assembly. Such a resolution can be moved only after giving 14 days advance notice.

Statement 2 is not correct: Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker does not vacate his office and continues till the newly elected Legislative Assembly meets.

19. Consider the following statements: (2017)

1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 per cent of the votes polled to be declared elected.

2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

19. Answer: (d)

Statement 1 is not correct: India has the first-past-the-post (FPTP) system (simple majority system). In this voting method, the candidate with the highest number of votes in a constituency is declared the winner. This system is used in India in the direct elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies. It does not always allow for a truly representative mandate, as the candidate could win despite securing less than half the votes in an election. In 2014, the National Democratic Alliance won 336 seats with only 38.5% of the popular vote. The winning candidate does not need to get at least 50 per cent of the votes polled to be declared elected.

Statement 2 is not correct: Up to the 10th Lok Sabha, both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker were usually from the ruling party. After the 11th Lok Sabha, there was a consensus (no provisions) that the Speaker comes from the ruling party (or ruling alliance), and the post of Deputy Speaker goes to the main opposition party. Currently, in the 17th Lok Sabha, there is no Deputy Speaker. Hence, it is just a convention and not a provision.

20. Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government: (2017)

(a) An arrangement for minimising criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.

(b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.

(d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.

20. Answer: ©

Article 74 states that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister to aid and advise the President.

Option (c) is correct: The fundamental principle underlying the working of the parliamentary system of government is a principle of collective responsibility. Article 75 clearly states that the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, whereas the Lok Sabha is the voice of the people, where the members are elected directly by people of India.

21. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements: (2017)

1. A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.

2. Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

21. Answer: (d) Statement 1 is not correct: A Private member’s bill is a bill introduced by any Member of Parliament in either House of Parliament other than a minister. Its introduction requires one month’s notice. Its rejection by the House has no implication on the parliamentary confidence in the government. A bill introduced by a Minister is known as a public bill.

Statement 2 is not correct: Around 14 private members bills have been passed since 1952. The last private member bill to become a law was way back in 1970. Most recently (as per 2018 records), the Rights of Transgender Persons Bill, 2014, was passed by the Rajya Sabha in 2015, but remains stuck in the Lok Sabha. It was brought in by DMK MP Tiruchi Siva, the bill has not been converted into a law.

22. For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by (2017)

(a) anyone residing in India.

(b) a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.

(d) any citizen of India.

22. Answer: ©

The Parliament has laid down the following additional qualifications in the Representation of People Act (1951).

O He must be registered as an elector for a parliamentary constituency. This is the same in the case of both the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha. The requirement that a candidate contesting an election to the Rajya Sabha from a particular state should be an elector in that state was dispensed with in 2003. In 2006, the Supreme Court upheld the Constitutional validity of this change. (Option (c) is correct)

O He must be a member of a scheduled caste or scheduled tribe in any state or union territory if he wants to contest a seat reserved for them. However, a member of scheduled castes or scheduled tribes can also contest a seat not reserved for them.

23. Which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016)

1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation.

2. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

23. Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is not correct: Prorogation not only terminates a sitting but also a session of the House. Prorogation does not affect the bills or any other business pending before the House. However, all pending notices (other than those for introducing bills) lapse on prorogation and fresh notices have to be given for the next session.

Statement 2 is correct: In case of dissolution of Lok Sabha (Rajya Sabha being the permanent house is not subjected to dissolution) the position with respect to lapsing of bills is as follows:

O A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses (whether originating in the Lok Sabha or transmitted to it by the Rajya Sabha).

O A bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses.

O A bill not passed by the two Houses due to disagreement and if the president has notified the holding of a joint sitting before the dissolution of Lok Sabha, does not lapse.

O A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by the Lok Sabha does not lapse.

O A bill passed by both Houses but pending assent of the president does not lapse.

O A bill passed by both Houses but returned by the president for reconsideration of Houses does not lapse.

24.TheParliament of India acquires the powers to legislate on any items in the State List in the national interest if the resolution to that effect has been passed by the (2016)

(a) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership

(b) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its total membership

(d) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two- thirds of its members present and voting

24. Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct:

Constitution empowers the Parliament to make laws on any matter enumerated in the State List under the following five extraordinary circumstances:

O If the Rajya Sabha declares that it is necessary in the national interest that Parliament should make laws on a matter in the State List, then the Parliament becomes competent to make laws on that matter. Such a resolution must be supported by two-thirds of the members present and voting.

O The Parliament acquires the power to legislate with respect to matters in the State List, o

When the legislatures of two or more states pass resolutions requesting the Parliament to enact laws on a matter in the State List, then the Parliament can make laws for regulating that matter. A law so enacted applies only to those states which have passed the resolutions.

O The Parliament can make laws on any matter in the State List for implementing the international treaties, agreements, or conventions.

O When the President’s rule is imposed in a state, the Parliament becomes empowered to make laws with respect to any matter in the State List in relation to that state.

25. There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the (2015)

(a) Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people

(b) Parliament can amend the Constitution

(d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha

25. Answer: (d)

India has a Parliamentary System of Government. Article 74 and Article 75 deal with the Parliamentary System at the Centre and Article 163 and Article 164 deal with the States. The features of Parliamentary Government in India are:

O Presence of nominal and real executives.

O Majority party rule.

O Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature: This is the bedrock principle of parliamentary government. The ministers are collectively responsible to the Parliament in general and to the Lok Sabha in particular (Article 75). The principle of collective responsibility implies that the Lok Sabha can remove the ministry (i.e., Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister) from office by passing a vote of no confidence. [Option (d) is correct]

O Membership of the Ministers in the Legislature.

O Leadership of the Prime Minister or the Chief Minister.

O Dissolution of the Lower House (Lok Sabha or Assembly).

26. Consider the following statements: (2015)

1. The Legislative Council of a State in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular State.

2. The Governor of a State nominates the Chairman of the Legislative Council of that particular State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

26. Answer: (d)

Statement 1 is not correct: The maximum strength of the Council is fixed at one-third of the total strength of the Assembly, and the minimum strength is fixed at 40. The size of the Council depends on the size of the Assembly of the concerned state. There is no uniformity in the organisation of State Legislatures. At present (2021), only six states have two Houses (bicameral). These are Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra and Karnataka. The Jammu and Kashmir Legislative Council was abolished by the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019.

Statement 2 is not correct: The Chairman is elected by the Council itself from amongst its members. The Chairman vacates his office in any of the following three cases:

O if he ceases to be a member of the Council

O if he resigns by writing to the Deputy Chairman

O if he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the Council. Such a resolution can be moved only after giving 14 days advance notice. As a Presiding Officer, the powers and functions of the Chairman in the Council are similar to those of the Speaker in the Assembly.

27.When a bill is referred to a joint sitting both the Houses of the Parliament, has to be passed by (2015)

(a) a simple majority of member present and voting

(b) three-fourths majority of member present and voting

(d) absolute majority of the House

27. Answer: (a)

Joint Sitting is an extraordinary machinery provided by the Constitution (Article 108) to resolve a deadlock between the two Houses over the passage of a Bill. A deadlock is deemed to have taken place under any one of the following three situations after a bill has been passed by one House and transmitted to the other House:

O if the bill is rejected by the other House.

O if the Houses have finally disagreed as to the Amendments to be made in the Bill.

O if more than six months have elapsed from the date of the receipt of the Bill by the other House without the Bill being passed by it.

Option (a) is correct: The President can summon both the Houses to meet in a Joint Sitting for the purpose of deliberating and voting on the Bill. The provision of Joint Sitting is applicable to ordinary Bills or Financial Bills only and not to Money Bills or Constitutional Amendment Bills. In the case of a Money Bill, the Lok Sabha has overriding powers, while a Constitutional Amendment Bill must be passed by each House separately. The Bill in a Joint Sitting is passed by a simple majority of members present and voting.

Additional Information:

O The Speaker of Lok Sabha presides over a Joint Sitting of the two Houses and the Deputy Speaker, in his absence. If the Deputy Speaker is also absent, the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides.

O The quorum to constitute a Joint Sitting is one-tenth of the total number of members of both the Houses.

28. Consider the following statements: (2015)

1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill.

2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.

3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

28. Answer: (b)

The Constitution has defined the relative roles or position of both the Houses of Parliament about the enactment of the Budget in the following way:

O A money bill or finance bill dealing with taxation cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha, it must be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.

O The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill. It should return the Money Bill (or Finance Bill) to the Lok Sabha within fourteen days. TheLok Sabha can either accept or reject the recommendations made by Rajya Sabha in this regard. (Statement 1 is correct)

O The Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on the Demand for Grants; it is the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha. (Statement 2 is correct)

Statement 3 is not correct: Article 112 states that the President shall, in respect of every financial year, cause to be laid before both the Houses of Parliament a statement of estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India for that year, which implies that Rajya Sabha can discuss the Annual Financial Statement.

29. Which one of the Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding the anti-defection? (2014)

(a) Second Schedule

(b) Fifth Schedule

(d) Tenth Schedule

29. Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct: The Anti-Defection Law sought to prevent such political defections which may be due to reward of office or other similar considerations. The Tenth Schedule was inserted in the Constitution in 1985. It lays down the process by which legislators may be disqualified on grounds of defection by the Presiding Officer of a legislature based on a petition by any other Member of the House.

O A legislator is deemed to have defected if he either voluntarily gives up the membership of his party or disobeys the directives of the party leadership on a vote and has not received pardon from the political party within fifteen days

O The Law applies to both Parliament and State Assemblies.

Additional Information:

O Second Schedule contains provisions related to allowances, privileges, and emoluments of some constitutional bodies.

O Fifth Schedule contains provision in relation to administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes.

O Eighth Schedule contains 22 languages recognised in the Constitution.

30.Which of the following committees is the largest Committee of the Parliament? (2014)

(a) The Committee on Public Accounts

(b) The Committee on Estimates

(d) The Committee on Petitions

30. Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct:

The Committee of Estimates is the largest committee of the Parliament. All members of the Committee are from Lok Sabha only. The Rajya Sabha has no representation in this Committee.

O The members of the Committee are elected by the Lok Sabha every year from amongst its own members, according to the principles of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. Thus, all parties get due representation in it.

O The term of office is one year.

O A Minister cannot be elected as a Member of the Committee.

O The Chairman of the Committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst its Members and he is invariably from the Ruling Party.

O The function of the Committee is to examine the estimates included in the Budget and suggest ‘economies’ in public expenditure. Hence, it has been described as a ‘Continuous Economy Committee’. Additional Information:

O Public Accounts Committee: At present, the Committee consists of 22 members (15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha). The function of the Committee is to examine the annual audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG), which are laid before the Parliament by the President.

O Committee on Public Undertaking: It has 22 members (15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha). Function of the Committee is to examine the reports and accounts of public undertakings.

O Committee on Petitions: It examines petitions on Bills and on matters of general public importance. It also entertains representations from individuals and associations on matters pertaining to Union Subjects.

31. Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India: (2014)

1. There is no mention of No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.

2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

31. Answer: (c)

Statement 1 is correct:

The Indian Constitution does not mention No-Confidence Motion. However, Article 75 specifies that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People. The implication of this Article is that the majority of Lok Sabha MPs must not be against the Prime Minister and his Cabinet.

Statement 2 is correct: Article 75 of the Constitution says that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. It means that the ministry stays in office so long as it enjoys the confidence of the majority of the members of the Lok Sabha. In other words, the Lok Sabha can remove the ministry from office by passing a No-Confidence Motion. Thus, it can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha. The Motion needs the support of at least 50 members to be admitted.

O Article 118 of the Constitution permits both Houses of Parliament to make its own rules for its functioning. Lok Sabha’s Rule 198 mentions the procedure for a Motion of NoConfidence.

32. Consider the following statements: (2013) The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts (PAC)

1. Consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha.

2. Scrutinises appropriation and finance accounts of Government.

3. Examine the report of CAG.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

32. Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is not correct:

The Public Accounts Committee was set up first in 1921 under the provisions of the Government of India Act of 1919 and has since been in existence. At present, it consists of 22 members (15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha). The members are elected by the Parliament every year from amongst its members according to the principle of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote. Functions of the Committee are:

O To examine the appropriation accounts and the finance accounts of the Union government and any other accounts laid before the Lok Sabha. (Statement 2 is Correct)

O Scrutinise the appropriation accounts and the audit report of CAG on it. (Statement 3 is Correct)

O To examine the accounts of state corporations, trading concerns and manufacturing projects and the audit report of CAG on them (except those public undertakings which are allotted to the Committee on Public Undertakings).

O To examine the accounts of autonomous and semi-autonomous bodies, the audit of which is conducted by the CAG.

O To consider the report of the CAG relating to the audit of any receipt or to examine the accounts of stores and stocks.

O To examine the money spent on any service during a financial year in excess of the amount granted by the Lok Sabha for that purpose.

33. In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government? (2013)

1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament.

2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.

3. The Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

33. Answer: (a)

Statement 1 is correct: Membership of the Ministers in the legislature is such that they are members of both the legislature and the executive. This means that a person cannot be a Minister without being a member of the Parliament. The Constitution stipulates that a Minister who is not a Member of the Parliament for a period of six consecutive months ceases to be a Minister.

Statement 2 is correct: Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature is the bedrock principle of parliamentary government. The Ministers are collectively responsible to the Parliament in general and to the Lok Sabha in particular (Article 75). They act as a team, and swim and sink together. The principle of collective responsibility implies that the Lok Sabha can remove the Ministry (i.eCouncil of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister) from office by passing a vote of ‘No Confidence’.

Statement 3 is not correct: The Cabinet is headed by the Prime Minister and not by the Head of the State (the President).

34. Consider the following statements: (2013)

1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the Members of that House.

2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the Presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

34. Answer: (b)

Unlike the Speaker (who is a member of the House), the Chairman is not a member of the House. The Chairman, however, can cast a vote in the case of an equality of votes. Statement 1 is not correct: The Deputy Chairman is elected by the Rajya Sabha itself from amongst its members. Whenever the office of the Deputy Chairman falls vacant, the Rajya Sabha elects another member to fill the vacancy.

Statement 2 is correct: The Electoral College for the election of the Vice President consists of both elected and nominated members of the Parliament (in the case of the President, only elected members). The President is elected by members of electoral college consisting of:

O The elected members of both the Houses of Parliament.

O The elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States.

O The elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry. Thus, the nominated members of the Houses have no vote in Presidential elections.

35. What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha? (2013)

(a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha

(b) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further

(d) The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill

35. Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct:

Under Article 109 (1), a Money Bill cannot be introduced in Rajya Sabha. Once passed by Lok Sabha, it is sent to Rajya Sabha along with the Speaker’s certificate that it is a Money Bill for its recommendations. However, Rajya Sabha can neither reject nor amend the Bill, and must return it within 14 days, after which Lok Sabha may choose to accept or reject all or any of its recommendations. In either case, the Bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses. Under Article 109(5), if Rajya Sabha fails to return the Bill to Lok Sabha within 14 days, it is deemed to have been passed anyway.

O The procedure to pass a Money Bill in Parliament is a key provision limiting the powers of Rajya Sabha compared to Lok Sabha. Any Bill other than a Money Bill cannot become law unless both Houses agree to it with or without amendments.

36. Consider the following statements: (2013)

1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a Bill in the Lok Sabha only.

2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the Legislature of all the States of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

36. Answer: (d)

Statement 1 is not correct: Rajya Sabha shares equal status with Lok Sabha in matters of introduction and passage of Constitutional amendment Bills, hence a Bill initiating amendment to the Constitution can be introduced in Rajya Sabha also.

Statement 2 is not correct: Those provisions of the Constitution which are related to the federal structure of the polity can be amended by a special majority of the Parliament and also with the consent of half of the State Legislatures by a simple majority. If one or some or all the remaining States take no action on the Bill, it does not matter; the moment half of the States give their consent, the formality is completed. There is no time limit within which the States should give their consent to the Bill.

37. The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing International Treaties (2013)

(a) with the consent of all the States

(b) with the consent of the majority of States

(d) without the consent of any State

37. Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct:

The Constitution empowers the Parliament to make laws for the whole or any part of India for implementing International Treaties. It can make laws on the subjects enumerated in the State List (which at present has 59 subjects, originally 66 subjects) under the following five abnormal circumstances:

O When Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to that effect.

O When a proclamation of National Emergency is in operation.

O When two or more states make a joint request to the Parliament.

O When necessary to give effect to International Agreements, Treaties and Conventions.

O When President’s Rule is in operation in the state. All the Ordinances issued by the President (during the recess of the Parliament) must be approved by the Parliament within six weeks after its reassembly and consent of the states is not required.

38.Regarding the Office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements: (2012)

1. He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President.

2. He/She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election.

3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) None

38. Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is not correct: The Speaker can be removed from Office only on a resolution of the House passed by a majority of all the then members of the House. Such a resolution has to satisfy some conditions like, it should be specific with respect to the charges, and it should not contain arguments, inferences, ironical expressions, imputations or defamatory statements, etc. Not only these, but discussions should also be confined to charges referred to in the resolution. It is also mandatory to give a minimum of 14 days’ notice of the intention to move the resolution.

Statement 2 is not correct: The Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members, therefore the Speaker has to be a member of Parliament to become eligible to contest election for the post of Speaker.

Statement 3 is correct: The Speaker holds Office from the date of his/her election till immediately before the first meeting of the Lok Sabha after the dissolution of the one to which he/she was elected. He/She is eligible for reelection. On the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, although the Speaker ceases to be a member of the House, he/she does not vacate his/her Office. The Speaker may, at any time, resign from Office by writing under his/her hand to the Deputy Speaker.

Elimination Technique: The Speaker does not hold the office during the pleasure of the President. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. He is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members so 2 is also incorrect.

39. Consider the following statements: (2012)

1. Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha.

2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes.

3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3

(d) None

39. Answer: (d)

Statement 1 is not correct: Out of the seven Union Territories, two (Delhi and Puducherry) have representation in Rajya Sabha. The populations of the other five Union Territories are too small to have any representative in the Rajya Sabha. The representatives of each Union Territory in the Rajya Sabha are indirectly elected by members of an electoral college specially constituted for the purpose. This election is also held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.

Statement 2 is not correct: Representatives of the People’s Act, 1951 vested the power to adjudicate the disputes regarding election to the Parliament or any State Assembly with the High Court of the concerned state. Also, all doubts and disputes in connection with election of the President are inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court whose decision is final. Statement 3 is not correct: Under the Constitution, the Parliament of India consists of three parts viz, the President, the Council of States, and the House of the People. Though the President of India is not a member of either House of Parliament or does not sit in the Parliament to attend its meetings, he is an integral part of the Parliament. This is because a Bill passed by both the Houses of Parliament cannot become law without the President’s assent.

40.In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an Adjournment Motion is: (2012)

(a) to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance

(b) to let opposition members, collect information from the ministers

(d) to postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behaviour on the part of some members

40.Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: Adjournment Motion is introduced in the Parliament to draw the attention of the House to a definite matter of urgent public importance and needs the support of 50 members to be admitted. As it interrupts the normal business of the House, it is regarded as an extraordinary device. It involves an element of censure against the government and hence Rajya Sabha is not permitted to make use of this device. The discussion on an Adjournment Motion should last for not less than two hours and thirty minutes. The right to move a motion for an adjournment of the business of the House is subject to the following restrictions:

O It should raise a matter which is definite, factual, urgent and of public importance.

O It should not cover more than one matter.

O It should be restricted to a specific matter of recent occurrence and should not be framed in general terms.

O It should not raise a question of privilege.

O It should not revive discussion on a matter that has been discussed in the same session.

O It should not deal with any matter that is under adjudication by court.

O It should not raise any question that can be raised on a distinct motion.

41. Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India? (2012)

1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament.

2. Withdrawal of monies from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill.

3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account.

4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programmes of the Government against macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office.

5. Introducing the Finance Bill in the Parliament.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

41. Answer: (a)

Statement 1 is correct:

The Constitution refers to the budget as the ‘annual financial statement’. In other words, the term ‘budget’ has nowhere been used in the Constitution. The President shall in respect of every financial year cause to be laid before both the Houses of Parliament a statement of estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India for that year.

Statement 2 is correct: The Constitution states that ‘no money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under appropriation made by law’. Accordingly, an Appropriation Bill is introduced to provide for the appropriation, out of the Consolidated Fund of India, all money required to meet:

O The grants voted by the Lok Sabha.

O The expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.

Statement 3 is correct: Supplementary Grant is made by the Parliament under extraordinary or special circumstances. It is granted when the amount authorised by the Parliament through the Appropriation Act for a particular service for the current financial year is found to be insufficient for that year.

Statement 5 is correct: The Finance Bill is introduced to give effect to the financial proposals of the Government of India for the following year. It is subjected to all the conditions applicable to a Money Bill. Unlike the Appropriation Bill, the amendments (seeking to reject or reduce a tax) can be moved in the case of the Finance Bill.

42. Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India? (2012)

(a) To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State.

(b) To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create one or more All India Services.

(c) To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the President after his/her retirement.

(d) To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the number of Election Commissioners.

42. Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct: The Rajya Sabha is the Upper House (Second Chamber or House of Elders). It represents the states and union territories of the Indian union. Due to its federal character, the Rajya Sabha has been given two exclusive or special powers that are not enjoyed by the Lok Sabha:

O It can authorise the Parliament to make a law on a subject enumerated in the State List (Article 249).

O It can authorise the Parliament to create new All-India Services common to both the Centre and states (Article 312).

43. A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of (2012)

1. Ordinary Legislation

2. Money Bill

3. Constitution Amendment Bill

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

43. Answer: (a) Joint sitting is an extraordinary machinery provided by the Constitution to resolve a deadlock between the two Houses over the passage of a bill. A deadlock is deemed to have taken place under any one of the following three situations after a bill has been passed by one House and transmitted to the other House:

O if the bill is rejected by the other House.

O if the Houses have finally disagreed as to the amendments to be made in the bill; or

O if more than six months have elapsed from the date of the receipt of the bill by the other House without the bill being passed by it.

Option (a) is correct: In the above three situations, the President can summon both the Houses to meet in a joint sitting for the purpose of deliberating and voting on the bill. It must be noted here that the provision of joint sitting is applicable to ordinary bills or financial bills only and not to money bills or Constitutional amendment bills. In the case of a money bill, the Lok Sabha has overriding powers, while a Constitutional amendment bill must be passed by each House separately.

44.The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from (2011)

(a) The President of India

(b) The Parliament of India

(d) The Union Finance Minister

44.Answer: (b)

Consolidated Fund of India is a fund to which all Government receipts are credited, and all payments are debited. In other words,

O All revenues received by the Government of India,

O All loans raised by the Government by the issue of treasury bills, loans or ways and means of advances; and

O All money received by the Government in repayment of loans forms the Consolidated Fund of India.

Option (b) is correct: All the legally authorised payments on behalf of the Government of India are made out of this fund. No money out of this fund can be appropriated (issued or drawn) except in accordance with a parliamentary law.

Elimination Technique: The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India comes from Parliament of India hence option (b) is correct.

45. All revenues received by the Union Government by way of taxes and other receipts for the conduct of Government business are credited to the (2011)

(a) Contingency Fund of India

(b) Public Account

(d) Deposits and Advances Fund

45. Answer: (c)

Option (c) is correct: Article 266 of the Indian Constitution provides for the Consolidated Fund of India. All revenues received by the Union Government by way of taxes and other receipts for the conduct of Government business are credited to the Consolidated Fund of India. All the legally authorised payments on behalf of the Government of India are made out of this fund.

Additional Information:

O Contingency Fund of India: The Contingency Fund of India is the emergency fund for the Nation. Constituted under Article 267(1) of the Indian Constitution, the Contingency Fund of India is used at a time when there is a crisis in the nation — a natural calamity, for instance — and money is required to deal with it. The Union government has its own contingency fund with a corpus of Rs 500 crore. States can also opt to have their own Contingency Funds. The Contingency Fund of the Union Government is at the disposal of the President of India, who releases the funds on request of the Union Cabinet, which later gets approval from Parliament. A Parliament approval is mandatory.

O Public Account: Public Account of India accounts for flows for those transactions where the Government is merely acting as a banker. This fund was constituted under Article 266 (2) of the Constitution. It accounts for flows for those transactions where the government is merely acting as a banker. Examples of those are provident funds, small savings and so on. These funds do not belong to the Government. They have to be paid back at some time to their rightful owners. Because of this nature of the fund, expenditures from it are not required to be approved by the Parliament.

46.When the annual Union Budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha, (2011)

(a) the Budget is modified and presented again

(b) the Budget is referred to the Rajya Sabha for suggestions

(d) the Prime Minister submits the resignation of Council of Ministers

46.Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct: When the annual Union Budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha, the Prime Minister submits the resignation of the Council of Ministers. If the Budget is not passed under any condition in Parliament, then it can be understood that the ruling party is in the minority. Technically it means the Government has lost the confidence vote in the Lok Sabha and it has to resign. In Indian history, this has not happened so far.

47. What is the difference between “vote-on account” and “interim budget”? (2011)

1. The provision of a “vote-on-account” is used by a regular Government, while an “interim budget” is a provision used by a caretaker Government.

2. A “vote-on-account” only deals with the expenditure in the Government’s Budget, while an “interim budget” includes both expenditure and receipts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

47. Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is not correct: The Constitution has authorised the Lok Sabha to make any grant in advance in respect to the estimated expenditure for a part of the financial year, pending the completion of the voting of the demands for grants and the enactment of the Appropriation Bill. This provision is known as the ‘vote on account’. It is passed (or granted) after the general discussion on the Budget is over. It is generally granted for two months for an amount equivalent to one-sixth of the total estimation. Vote on account is passed every year, used by both the regular and caretaker Government.

Statement 2 is correct: A “Vote-on-account” deals only with expenditure while interim budget both revenue and expenditure. An Interim Budget is similar to a Union Budget. In the Interim Budget, the ruling Government tables estimates of its expenditure, revenue, fiscal deficit and financial performance and projections for the upcoming financial year. The ruling Government at the end of its tenure, presents an Interim Budget for three to four months so as to keep the country running unhampered.

Executive

1. Consider the following statements : (2023)

1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid.

2. Elections for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the grounds that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.

3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/ her assent.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

1. Answer: (d)

Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 71 of the Constitution explicitly states that any acts done by the president or vice president in their official capacity shall not be invalidated just because the Supreme court has declared their election to be invalid.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Presidential and Vice presidential election Act and rules of 1952 empower the election commission of India to conduct elections to these offices without any provision allowing for changes to election cycles due to non functional legislative assemblies.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Constitution does not provide for any time limit to either the President or Governor with respect to delivering assent

2. Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India: (2023)

1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.

2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State.

3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.

4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

2. Answer: (a)

Statement 1 is not correct: The elected members of the Upper and Lower Houses of Parliament that is the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha as well as the elected Members of the Legislative Assemblies of States and Union Territories (MLAs) comprise the electoral college for the Presidential Election in India.

Statement 2 is not correct: The value of vote of each MLA depends on the ratio of the State’s population and the number of MLAs in its legislative Assembly. By dividing the State’s population by the number of MLAs in its legislative Assembly, and then further dividing the quotient achieved by 1000, one may calculate the value of each MLAs vote. Based on a calculation that takes into account each State’s population in relation to the number of members in its legislative Assembly, each MLAs vote value varies from State to State. According to the Constitution (Eighty-fourth Amendment) Act of 2001, the population of the States is currently calculated using data from the 1971 Census.

Statement 3 is not correct: The vote value of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is less than that of the vote value of each MLA of Kerala as the ratio of total population to total elective seats in Kerala is greater relative to that in Madhya Pradesh.

Statement 4 is correct: The vote value of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh as the ratio of total population to total elective seats in Puducherry is greater relative to that in Arunachal Pradesh. In 2022 Presidential election the vote value of each MLA from Puducherry was 16 whereas the vote value of each MLA from Arunachal Pradesh came out to be 8.

3. Consider the following statements : (2022)

1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.

2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

3. Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is not correct:

Article 74: There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice: Provided that the President may require the council of Ministers to reconsider such advice, either generally or otherwise, and the President shall act in accordance with the advice tendered after such reconsideration. The question whether any, and if so what, advice was tendered by Ministers to the President shall not be inquired into in any court.

Statement 2 is correct: Article 75 (1A): (91st Amendment) The total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed fifteen per cent. of the total number of members of the House of the People.

4. In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy? (2020)

(a) An agency for widening the scope of parliamentary democracy

(b) An agency for strengthening the structure of federalism

(d) An agency for the implementation of public policy

4. Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct: Bureaucracy refers to a permanent executive body of non-elected government officials and an administrative policy-making group. The public administration in many countries is an example of a bureaucracy. Providing policy inputs to the Government and to implement the policies once they become law or directives are the two basic functions of Bureaucracy. So, bureaucracy can be considered as an agency for the implementation of public policy

5. Consider the following statements: (2020)

1. The President of India can summon a session of Parliament at such a place as he/she thinks fit.

2. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions.

3. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

5. Answer: (c) Statement 1 is correct:

Under Article 85(1) of the Constitution the President can summon each House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six months duration shall not exceed between its last sitting in one Session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next Session.

Statement 2 is not correct: The Indian Constitution does not provide for three sessions of the Parliament. It is by convention that Parliament meets for three sessions in a year.

Statement 3 is correct: To meet in a year there is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required in fact, the number of days that Parliament meets has reduced over the years. During the first two decades of Parliament, Lok Sabha met for an average of a little more than 120 days a year. In the last decade this has come down to approximately 70 days.

Elimination Technique: The Constitution asks the House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as the president thinks fit and six months duration shall not exceed between its sitting hence statement 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.

6. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements: (2019)

1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.

2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

6. Answer: (c)

Statement 1 is correct: Article 176(1) of the Constitution of India enjoins that the Governor shall address both the Houses assembled together at the commencement of the first Session after each general election to the Assembly and at the commencement of the first session of each year.

Statement 2 is not correct: Article 208 deals with the Rules of Procedure in State Legislatures. It states that:

A House of the Legislature of a State may make rules for regulating subject to the provisions of this Constitution, its procedure and the conduct of its business.

Until rules are made under clause (1), the rules of procedure and standing orders in force immediately before the commencement of this Constitution with respect to the Legislature for the corresponding Province shall have effect in relation to the Legislature of the State subject to such modifications and adaptations as may be made therein by the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly, or the Chairman of the Legislative Council, as the case may be.

So in case, when there is no rule on a particular subject in the State Legislature, under a convention since colonial times, state legislatures follow the rules of the Lok Sabha.

7. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past? (2019)

(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)

(b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)

(d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)

7. Answer: (c)

Option (c) is correct: Sarkaria Commission was set up in June 1983 to examine the relationship and balance of power between state and central governments and suggest changes within the framework of the Constitution. The Commission suggested various recommendations for the appointment of Governor.

It recommended that the Governor:

O Should be an eminent person.

O Must be a person from outside the State.

O Should not have participated in active politics at least for some time before his appointment.

O Should not be connected with local politics of the state.

8. With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements: (2018)

1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.

2. The value of vote of MPs in Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

8. Answer: (a)

Statement 1 is correct: The President is elected by an electoral college, which comprises only elected representatives (Parliament, Legislative Assemblies of States and UTs of Delhi and Puducherry). Nominated members of Parliament are not allowed to vote. The value of a vote of an MLA varies from State to State, mainly to reflect the population of each state. For example: the value of one MLAs vote in Delhi is 58, in Uttar Pradesh it is 208 and in Sikkim it is just 7. .

.Statement 2 is not correct: The value of vote of each Member of Parliament is equal whether he/she is from Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha.

9. Consider the following statements: (2018)

1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.

2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a state shall not be diminished during his term of office.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

9. Answer: (c)

Statement 1 is correct: The Governor is entitled to a number of privileges and immunities. He enjoys personal immunity from legal liability for his official acts. During his term of office, he is immune from any criminal proceedings, even in respect of his personal acts and cannot be arrested or imprisoned. However, after giving two months’ notice, civil proceedings can be instituted against him during his term of office in respect of his personal acts.

Statement 2 is correct: A Governor holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. He is entitled to such emoluments, allowances and privileges as may be determined by Parliament. His emoluments and allowances cannot be diminished during his term of office.

10. If the president of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the constitution in respect of a particular state, then (2018)

(a) the assembly of a state is automatically dissolved.

(b) the power of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.

(d) the President can make laws relating to that State.

10. Answer: (b) The President’s Rule can be proclaimed under Article 356 on two grounds, one mentioned in Article 356 itself and another in Article 365. When the President’s rule is imposed, the President dismisses the State Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister. Further, the President either suspended or dissolved the State Legislative Assembly.

Option (b) is correct: When the State Legislature is suspended or dissolved, the power of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament. The Parliament can also delegate the power to make laws for the State to the President or to any other Authority specified by him in this regard.

11. Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State? (2017)

1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly

2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State

3. Dissolution of the local bodies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

11. Answer: (b) Article 355 imposes a duty upon the Centre to ensure that the government of every state is carried on in accordance with the Constitution. It is this duty in the performance of which the centre takes over the State government under Article 356 in case of failure of Constitutional machinery in the state. This is popularly known as ‘President’s Rule’, also known as ‘State Emergency’ or ‘Constitutional Emergency’.

Option (b) is correct: Consequences of President’s Rule are mentioned below.

O The President can take up the functions of the state government and powers vested in the governor.

O The President can declare that the powers of the state legislature are to be exercised by the Parliament.

O The President either suspended or dissolves the State Legislative Assembly.

O The President dismisses the State Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister.

O There is no provision for dissolution of the local bodies when President’s rule is imposed in the state.

12. The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through (2017)

1. Adjournment motion

2. Question hour 3. Supplementary questions

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

12. Answer: (d)

The Parliament exercises control over the ministers through various devices like question hour, discussions, adjournment motion, no confidence motion, etc.

Option (d) is correct: Adjournment Motion is introduced in the Parliament to draw the attention of the House to a definite matter of urgent importance and needs the support of 50 members to be admitted. It involves an element of censure against the government, and hence Rajya Sabha is not permitted to make use of this device. The discussion on an adjournment motion should last for not less than two hours and thirty minutes. Hence, it is a tool of the Parliament to exercise control over the functions of the Council of Ministers. Question Hour is also used to exercise control over the functions of the Council of Ministers. The first hour of every parliament sitting is slotted for this. During this time, the members can ask questions, and ministers usually give answers.

The questions are of three kinds, namely, starred, unstarred and short notices.

O Starred Question (distinguished by an asterisk) requires an oral answer, and hence Supplementary questions can follow.

O Unstarred questions require a written answer and hence supplementary questions cannot follow.

O Short notice questions are asked by giving a notice of less than ten days, answered orally.

13. Consider the following statements: (2016)

1. The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the Governor of that State.

2. The Chief Secretary in a state has a fixed tenure.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

13. Answer: (d)

Statement 1 is not correct: Chief Secretary is the topmost bureaucratic position in a State, generally held by an Indian Administrative Officer. The Chief Secretary is ‘a linchpin’ in the administration. The Chief Secretary is chosen by the Chief Minister from among the senior most Indian Administrative Officers. He is then appointed by the Chief Minister in the name of the Governor. The Governor is the Chief Executive Head of the State and all executive actions in a State are taken by and in the name of the Governor.

Statement 2 is not correct: Chief Secretary of a State has not been guaranteed any security of tenure. He assumes his office as per the pleasure of the Governor and can be removed anytime by the Governor.

14. Consider the following statements: (2015)

1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.

2. The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

14. Answer: (d)

The Union executive consists of the President, the Vice-President, the Prime Minister, the Council of Ministers and the Attorney General of India. The President is the Head of the Indian State. He is the First Citizen of India and acts as the symbol of unity, integrity and solidarity of the nation. The executive powers and functions of the President are:

O All executive actions of the Government of India are formally taken in his name. (Statement 1 is not correct)

O He can make rules specifying the manner in which the orders and other instruments made and executed in his name shall be authenticated.

O He appoints the Prime Minister and the other ministers. They hold office during his pleasure. The Civil Services Board is responsible for recruitment and promotions below the rank of Joint Secretary. It is headed by the Chief Secretary of the state with Personnel Secretary and either Financial Commissioner or Home Secretary as its members. (Statement 2 is not correct)

15. Which of the following is/are the functions/ functions of the Cabinet Secretariat? (2014)

1. Preparations of agenda for Cabinet Meetings

2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Meetings

3. Allocations of financial resources to the Ministers

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

15. Answer: (c)

The Cabinet Secretariat is responsible for the administration of the Government of India (Transaction of Business) Rules, 1961 and the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961, facilitating smooth transaction of business in Ministries/Departments of the Government. This Secretariat provides Secretarial assistance to the Cabinet and its Committees. The secretarial assistance, provided by Cabinet Secretariat to the Cabinet and Cabinet Committees, includes:

O Preparation and circulation of the agenda. (Statement 1 is correct)

O Convening of the meetings of the Cabinet and its Committees on the orders of the Prime Minister. (Statement 2 is correct)

O Circulation of the record of discussions after obtaining the approval of the Prime Minister.

O Monitoring implementation of decisions taken by the Cabinet and its Committees. Statement 3 is not correct: Allocations of financial resources to the Ministers is not a function of the Cabinet Secretariat. Financial resources are allocated to Ministries, as per the provisions in the Budget prepared by the Finance Ministry

16. Which of the following are the discretionary powers of the Governor of a State? (2014)

1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule.

2. Appointing the Ministers.

3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India.

4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government.

Select the answers using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

16. Answer: (b)

The Constitution of India provides for a Parliamentary form of government in the States as in the Centre. Consequently, the Governor has been made only a nominal executive, the real executive constitutes the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister. In other words, the Governor has to exercise his powers and functions with the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister, except in matters in which he is required to act at his discretion.

O Recommendation for the imposition of the President’s Rule in the state. (Statement 1 is correct)

O Reservation of a Bill for the consideration of the President. (Statement 3 is correct)

O While exercising his functions as the administrator of an adjoining Union Territory (in case of additional charge).

O Determining the amount payable by the Government of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram to an autonomous Tribal District Council as royalty accruing from licences for mineral exploration.

O Seeking information from the Chief Minister with regard to the administrative and legislative matters of the State.

Statement 2 and statement 4 are not correct: Appointing the Ministers and making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government is not under the discretionary powers of the Governor of a State.

Elimination Technique: Appointing the Ministers and making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government is not under the discretionary powers of the Governor hence statement 2 and 4 are incorrect.

17. Consider the following statements: (2014)

1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.

2. All executive actions of the government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

17. Answer: (a)

Statement 1 is correct: The President is the Head of the Indian State. He is the First Citizen of India and acts as the symbol of unity, integrity, and solidarity of the Nation. He performs a wide spectrum of functions ranging from executive, legislative, judicial, military, financial to diplomatic. Under the executive powers of the President granted by the Constitution, he/she can make rules for more convenient transactions of business of the Union Government, and for allocation of the said business among the Ministers.

Statement 2 is not correct: All executive actions of the Government of India are formally taken in the President’s name and not in the name of the Prime Minister (head of the government or real head). Other executive functions of the President are:

O The President can make rules specifying the manner in which the orders and other instruments made and executed in his name shall be authenticated. He appoints the Prime Minister and the other Ministers. They hold office during his (President’s) pleasure.

O He appoints the Attorney General of India and determines his remuneration. The Attorney General holds office during the pleasure of the President.

O He appoints the Comptroller and Auditor General of India, the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners, the Chairman and Members of the Union Public Service Commission, the Governors of States, the Chairman and Members of Finance Commission, and so on.

18. Consider the following statements: (2013)

1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.

2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.

3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for legislation.

Select the correct answer using the given code below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

18. Answer: (b) Article 75 of the Indian Constitution states that:

O The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.

O The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People. (Statement 1 is not correct)

O The Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the President. (Statement 2 is correct) According to Article 78 of the Indian Constitution, it shall be the duty of the Prime Minister to communicate to the President all the decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation. (Statement 3 is correct)

19. Which one of the following statements is correct? (2013)

(a) In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time.

(b) The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President.

(d) In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support.

19. Answer: (c)

Option (a) is not correct: There is a Governor for each state, but the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 facilitated the appointment of the same person as a Governor for two or more states.

Option (b) is not correct: The Judges of a High Court and the Supreme Court are appointed by the President.

Option (c) is correct: The Constitution does not lay down any grounds upon which a Governor may be removed by the President. A Governor holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. However, this term of five years is subject to the pleasure of the President. Further, he can resign at any time by addressing a resignation letter to the President.

Option (d) is not correct: Section 45 in the Government of Union Territories Act, 1963, states that the Chief Minister shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Chief Ministers.

20. The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment: (2012)

(a) Need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of one of the Houses within six months

(b) Need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of the Lok Sabha within six months

(d) Must be a member of the Lok Sabha

20. Answer: (a)

The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Prime Minister. Article 75 says only that the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the president. However, this does not imply that the president is free to appoint anyone as the Prime Minister. In accordance with the conventions of the parliamentary system of government, the President has to appoint the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha as the Prime Minister. But, when no party has a clear majority in the Lok Sabha, then the President may exercise his personal discretion in the selection and appointment of the Prime Minister. In such a situation, the President usually appoints the leader of the largest party or coalition in the Lok Sabha as the Prime Minister and asks him to seek a vote of confidence in the House within a month. This discretion was exercised by the President, for the first time in 1979, when Neelam Sanjiva Reddy (the then President) appointed Charan Singh (the coalition leader) as the Prime Minister after the fall of the Janata Party government headed by Morarji Desai.

Option (a) is correct: In 1997, the Supreme Court held that a person who is not a member of either House of Parliament can be appointed as Prime Minister for six months, within which, he should become a member of either House of Parliament; otherwise, he ceases to be the Prime Minister. In the scheme of parliamentary system of government provided by the constitution, the President is the nominal executive authority (de jure executive) and Prime Minister is the real executive authority (de facto executive). In other words, the President is the head of the State while the Prime Minister is the head of the government. Constitutionally, the Prime Minister may be a member of any of the two Houses of Parliament.

21. According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to be laid before the Parliament which of the following? (2012)

1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission

2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee

3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General

4. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

21. Answer: (c)

Option (c) is correct: According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to be laid before the Parliament -the recommendations of the Union Finance Commission, the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India and the report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes. Under the Constitution, the Parliament of India consists of three parts viz, the President, the Council of States, and the House of the People. The President is an integral part of the Parliament of India and enjoys the following legislative powers:

O He can summon or prorogue the Parliament and dissolve the Lok Sabha. He can also summon a joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament, which is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

O He can address the Parliament at the commencement of the first session after each general election and the first session of each year.

O He can send messages to the Houses of Parliament, whether with respect to a bill pending in the Parliament or otherwise.

O He lays the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General, Union Public Service Commission, Finance Commission, National Commission of Scheduled Caste, National Commission of Scheduled Tribe, before the Parliament.

O He can appoint any member of the Lok Sabha to preside over its proceedings when the offices of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker fall vacant. Similarly, he can also appoint any member of the Rajya Sabha to preside over its proceedings when the offices of both the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman fall vacant.

O He nominates 12 members of the Rajya Sabha from amongst persons having special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art and social service.

O He can nominate two members to the Lok Sabha from the Anglo-Indian Community.

O He decides on questions as to disqualifications of members of the Parliament, in consultation with the Election Commission.

5.Judiciary

1. In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of Fundamental Rights? (2023)

(a) 1st Amendment

(b) 42nd Amendment

(d) 86th Amendment

1. Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: The first Constitutional Amendment Act of 1951 was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights. The Act added the fourth clause to Article 15 that empowered the government to make any law for the upliftment of socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. The added clause elucidates that in case such special provisions are introduced, they cannot be said to be breaching Article 15 and Article 29(2) of the Constitution. The need to insert this clause was felt after the decision of the Supreme Court in the State of Madras v. Srimathi Champakam (1951). According to the facts of this case, the Madras government issued an Order that provided reservation on the grounds of religion, race, and caste. This Order was contended to be in breach of Article 15(1) of the Indian Constitution. The Court also gave a literal interpretation to the constitutional provisions and held that reserving seats in public institutions for backward classes violates Articles 15(1) and 29(2). Therefore, in order to nullify the effect of similar judicial pronouncements, Article 15 was amended.

2. Consider the following statements : (2023)

Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgments that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration.

Statement-II : Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term ‘efficiency of administration’.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but StatementII is correct

2. Answer: (c)

Statement 1 is correct: The Supreme court in the Nagraj case of 2006, and the Jarnail singh case of 2018, laid down guidelines for reservation in promotions . It said reservation in promotion may be implemented if it does not hamper the overall administrative efficiency of the government.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution states the term ‘efficiency of administration’ but does not define it.

3. With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements : (2022)

1. Mandamus will not lie against a private . organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty.

2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.

3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

3. Answer: (c)

Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is in correct . Mandamus’ means ‘we command’. Mandamus is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to perform. It can also be issued against any public body, a corporation, an inferior court, a tribunal, or a government for the same purpose.

It cannot be issued against a private individual or body, the President or Governors of States, or against a working Chief Justices.

It is usually not usable against a private entity unless it is entrusted with a public duty.

As explained above, Mandamus can be used against a government corporation and/or company.

Statement 3 is correct There are five Types of Writs. These are – Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari and Quo Warranto. A citizen has a right to move the Courts for securing the Fundamental Rights and legal rights enforced by filing a Writ Petition.

4. With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2022)

1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.

2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

4. Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is not correct: Advocates are the only recognized class of persons entitled to Practise the profession of Law. With the development of the society the legal profession underwent a metamorphosis and several attempts have been made for proper dispensation of justice and to cater the legal needs of the society. They have been excluded from recognition as advocates.

Statement 2 is correct: The Bar Council of India visits and inspects Universities/Law colleges in the country as part of its statutory function of promoting legal education and laying down standards in consultation with the Universities in India and the State Bar Councils

5. Consider the following statements: (2022)

1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.

2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.

3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.

4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 3 only

5. Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is correct: The Sanyal Committee examined the law relating to contempt of courts in general, and the law relating to the procedure for contempt proceedings including the punishment thereof in particular. The Committee submitted its report in 1963, which inter alia defined and limited the powers of certain courts in punishing for contempt of courts and provided to regulate the procedure in relation thereto. The recommendations of the Committee were generally accepted by the Government after having wide consultation with the State Governments, Union Territory Administrations, and all other stakeholders. After the aforesaid deliberations the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 (70 of 1971) came to be enacted (hereinafter referred to as the “Act 1971”), which repealed and replaced the Act 1952. Statement 2 is correct: Article 129: Supreme Court to be a court of record The Supreme Court shall be a court of record and shall have all the powers of such a court including the power to punish for contempt of itself. Article 215: High Courts to be courts of record Every High Court shall be a court of record and shall have all the powers of such a court including the power to punish for contempt of itself.

Statement 3 is not correct: THE CONTEMPT OF COURTS ACT, 1971 Definitions.—In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires,—

(a) “contempt of court” means civil contempt or criminal contempt;

(b) “civil contempt” means wilful disobedience to any judgement, decree, direction, order, writ or other process of a court or wilful breach of an undertaking given to a court;

(c) “criminal contempt” means the publication (whether by words, spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible representations, or otherwise) of any matter or the doing of any other act whatsoever which— (i) scandalises or tends to scandalise, or lowers or tends to lower the authority of, any court; or (ii) prejudices, or interferes or tends to interfere with, the due course of any judicial proceeding; or(iii) interferes or tends to interfere with, or obstructs or tends to obstruct, the administration of justice in any other manner;

(d) “High Court” means the High Court for a State or a Union territory, and includes the court of the Judicial Commissioner in any Union territory.

Statement 4 in correct SEVENTH SCHEDULE (Article 246) List I— Union List: Entry 77. Constitution, organisation, jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme Court (including contempt of such Court), and the fees taken therein; persons entitled to practise before the Supreme Court.

6. With reference to India, consider the following statements : (2021)

1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in police station, not in jail.

2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

6. Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is not correct: The provisions for custody in India are governed by Section 167 of the Code of Criminal Procedure. Police Custody means that police have the physical custody of the accused, while Judicial Custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned Magistrate. In Police custody, the accused is lodged in a police station lockup, while in Judicial Custody, he is locked up in jail.

Statement 2 is correct: During Judicial Custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect. However, the court may allow the interrogations to be conducted if it opines the interrogation is necessary under the facts produced before the court. However, during police custody, the police officer in charge of the case may interrogate the suspect.

7. With reference to India, consider the following statements : (2021)

1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right.

2. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

7. Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is not correct: The granting authority for parole is the deputy home secretary of the state government. Parole is a system of releasing a prisoner with the suspension of the sentence. Parole cannot be claimed as a matter of right. Parole may be denied to a prisoner even when he makes out sufficient cause for release on parole. Parole is to be granted only on a sufficient cause, such as cases of severe illness or death of any member of the prisoner’s family. Parole and Furlough can be denied if the competent authority is of the opinion that releasing the inmate would not be in the interest of society.

Statement 2 is correct: In India, parole (as well as furlough) is covered under the Prisons Act of 1894. Prisoners convicted of multiple murders or under the anti-terror Unlawful Activities Prevention Act (UAPA) are not eligible for parole. Since prisons are a State subject to the Constitution, the Prisons Act of each state government defines the rules under which parole is granted in that state. The management and administration of prisons fall exclusively in the domain of state governments and are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 and the Prison Manuals of the respective state governments.

8. With reference to the Indian judiciary, consider the following statements : (2021)

1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India.

2. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

8. Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Statement 1: This is correct. Under Article 128 of the Indian Constitution, the Chief Justice of India (CJI) can request a retired Supreme Court judge to sit and act as a judge of the Supreme Court with the prior consent of the President of India.

Statement 2: This is correct. Article 226 of the Indian Constitution provides High Courts with the power to issue certain writs, and under Article 137, the Supreme Court and High Courts both have the power to review their own judgments subject to rules made by the court.

Thus, both statements are correct, and the answer is (c) Both 1 and 2.

9. In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by (2020)

(a) the Preamble of the Constitution

(b) a Directive Principle of State Policy

(d) the conventional practice

9. Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct: Article 50 of the Indian Constitution, as enshrined in form of Directly Principles of State Policy in Part IV, provides that “the State shall take steps to separate the Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State”. The Criminal Procedure Code 1973 also mandates the separation of judiciary from the executive, which enables the state to work independently and impartially without the interference of any other organs of the State. The Directive Principles of State Policies (Article 36 – 51) act as a guideline for the state and are needed to be taken into consideration while coming up with any new law but a citizen cannot compel the state to follow DPSPs as they are non-justiciable. DPSPs are positive obligations on the state. DPSPs were not made justiciable because at the time of the drafting of the Constitution, India was a newly born independent state and was lacking in financial resources and also struggling with various issues and making DPSPs justiciable would have put India in great difficulty.

10. Consider the following statements: (2019)

1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act 1968.

2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details or what constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.

3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.

4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

10. Answer: (c)

Statement 1 is not correct: The Judges (Inquiry) Act,1968 contains the detailed procedures relating to the removal of Judges of the Supreme Court or the High Court. Under this Act, the Chairman or the Speaker may or may not admit the motion of impeachment.

Statement 2 is not correct: The term “incapacity and proved misbehaviour” is not mentioned anywhere in the Constitution. The term ‘misconduct’ of a judge is to be proved outside Parliament before a non-parliamentary committee. However, the Judges (Inquiry) Bill, 2006, defines ‘proved misbehaviour’:

O wilful or persistent conduct bringing dishonour or disrepute to the judiciary; y wilful or persistent failure to perform the duties of a judge;

O wilful abuse of judicial office, corruption, lack of integrity or committing an offence involving moral turpitude. Moreover, the Judicial Standards and Accountability Bill, 2010, also proposed to widen the definition of misconduct.

Statement 3 is correct: The Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 states “the procedure for the investigation and proof of the misbehaviour or incapacity of a judge of the Supreme Court or of a High Court”.

Statement 4 is correct: The motion for removal of a Judge is to be signed by 50 members of Rajya Sabha or 100 members of Lok Sabha and it has to be passed by a majority of the House and 2/3rd of those present and voting in the same session.

Additional Information:

If the motion is admitted by the Chairman or the Speaker, he/she must constitute a three member committee to investigate the charges against the judge. Such a committee consists of the Chief Justice or a Judge of the Supreme Court of India, Chief Justice of a High Court and a distinguished Jurist.

11. Consider the following statements: (2019)

1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.

2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

11. Answer: (b)

Judicial review is the power of the Judiciary to examine the constitutionality of any act or any orders of both the Central as well as State government. Judicial review is considered as a basic structure of the Constitution. Statement 1 is not correct: It was the 39th Constitutional Amendment Act (not 44th Amendment Act) which removed the authority of the Supreme Court to adjudicate petitions regarding elections of the President, Vice President, Prime Minister and Speaker of the Lok Sabha. Instead, a body constituted by Parliament would be vested with the power to resolve such election disputes.

Statement 2 is correct: The 99th Constitutional Amendment and National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) Act were brought by the government to replace the 1993 collegium system for the appointment of judges to the Supreme Court and the High courts. But the Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th amendment to the Constitution as it impinged upon the principles of “independence of the judiciary”, as well as “separation of powers”.

Additional Information:

The 44th Constitution Amendment Act, 1978 removed the 39th Constitution Amendment Act, 1975. It was enacted by the Janata Party to “restore the Constitution to the condition it was before the Emergency”. Some provisions of 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 are as follows:

O Right to Property was removed as a Fundamental Right (Article 31) and was made Legal Right (Article 300A)

O Proclamation of Emergency could be done on the basis of war, external aggression or armed rebellion. The word “Internal Disturbance” was replaced with “armed rebellion.”

O Written recommendation of the cabinet to the President was made necessary to proclaim National Emergency.

12. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following? (2019)

(a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.

(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by the laws made by Parliament.

(c) In the event of a grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare a Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.

(d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of the Union Legislature.

12. Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct:

Article 142 of the Indian Constitution states that the Supreme Court of India may pass an order which it finds necessary for doing complete justice in a case or matter pending before it. Such an order would be applicable throughout the territory of India. One of the important instances of application by the Supreme Court of Article 142 was in the Union Carbide case – relating to the victims of the Bhopal gas tragedy — where the Court felt a need to deviate from existing law to bring relief to the thousands of persons affected by the gas leak. In this judgement, the Supreme Court, while awarding compensation of $470 million to the victims, went to the extent of saying that to do complete justice, it could even override the laws made by Parliament by holding that, “prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot, ipso facto, act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142.” By this statement the Supreme Court of India placed itself above the laws made by Parliament or the legislatures of the States.

13. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements: (2019)

1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.

2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

13. Answer: (d)

The Constitution of India does not give a detailed description of the original jurisdiction of the High Court. It is accepted that the original jurisdiction of a High Court is exercised by issue of Writs to any person or authority including Government. Article 226 of the Constitution vests in the High Court the power to issue writs for the restoration of fundamental rights. However, this power of the High Court does not derogate the similar power conferred on the Supreme Court in Article 32 of the Constitution.

Statement 1 is not correct: The original jurisdiction of the High Courts also extends to the matters of admiralty, probate, matrimonial and contempt of Court cases. The High Courts also have full powers to make rules to regulate their business in relation to the administration of justice. Recently, a petitioner challenged the validity of the Epidemic Diseases Act, a central law in the Supreme Court. The Supreme court bench led by Justice DY Chandrachud refused to entertain the plea and asked the petitioner that the High Courts also have jurisdiction in respect of central Acts.

Statement 2 is not correct: The 42nd Constitution Amendment Act, 1976 curtailed the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the High Courts to review the constitutionality of laws. However, the 43rd Constitution Amendment Act,1977 restored the power of the Supreme Court and the High Courts to review the laws, which means an amendment to the Constitution of India can be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.

14. In India, Judicial Review implies (2017)

(a) The power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the Constitutionality of laws and executive orders.

(b) The power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.

(d) The power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different cases.

14. Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: Judicial Review, power of the Judiciary of a country to examine the actions of the legislative, executive, and administrative arms of the government and to determine whether such actions are consistent with the Constitution. Actions judged inconsistent are declared unconstitutional and, therefore, null and void. The institution of Judicial Review in this sense depends upon the presence of a written Constitution. Though the phrase ‘Judicial Review’ has nowhere been mentioned in the Constitution, the provisions of several articles (Article 13) explicitly confer the power of judicial review on the Supreme Court. The Constitutional Validity can be challenged on three following grounds:

O It infringes on Fundamental Rights.

O It is outside the competence of the authority which has framed it.

O It is repugnant to the Constitutional provisions.

15. Who/which of the following is the Custodian of the Constitution of India? (2015)

(a) The President of India

(b) The Prime Minister of India

(d) The Supreme Court of India

15. Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct: The Supreme Court is a federal court, the highest court of appeal, the guarantor of the Fundamental Rights of the citizens and the guardian of the Constitution.

O Article 32 is one of the Fundamental Rights listed in the Constitution that each citizen is entitled to. It deals with the ‘Right to Constitutional Remedies’ or affirms the right to move the Supreme Court by appropriate proceedings for the enforcement of the rights conferred in Part III of the Constitution.

16. The power to increase the number of Judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in (2014)

(a) The President of India

(b) The Parliament

(d) The Law Commission

16. Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct:

The Constitution has vested the power to increase the number of Judges of the Supreme Court of India with the Parliament. Parliament accordingly enacted the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956. Originally, the strength of the Supreme Court was fixed at eight (one Chief Justice and seven other Judges).

O The Parliament has increased this number of other Judges progressively to ten in 1956, to thirteen in 1960, to seventeen in 1977, to twenty-five in 1986, to thirty in 2009 and to thirty-three in 2019 by amending the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act. Therefore, at present the Supreme Court consists of thirty-four Judges (one Chief justice and thirty-three other Judges).

17. The power of Supreme Court of India to decide dispute between the centre and states fall under its: (2014)

(a) Advisory jurisdiction

(b) Appellate jurisdiction

(d) Writ jurisdiction

17. Answer: (c) Option (c) is correct:

The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the centre and states fall under its Original jurisdiction. The Supreme Court has exclusive Original jurisdiction in the federal dispute. Federal disputes refer to disputes between different units of the Indian Federation. Article 131 of the Indian Constitution deals with the Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. Original jurisdiction, subject to the provisions of this Constitution, the Supreme Court shall, to the exclusion of any other court, have Original jurisdiction in any dispute:

O Between the Government of India and one or more States; or

O Between the Government of India and any State or States on one side and one or more other States on the other; or

O Between two or more States, if and in so far as the dispute involves any question (whether of law or fact) on which the existence or extent of a legal right depends: Provided that the said jurisdiction shall not extend to a dispute arising out of any treaty, agreement, covenant, engagements, and or other similar instrument which, having been entered into or executed before the commencement of this Constitution, continues in operation after such commencement, or which provides that the said jurisdiction shall not extend to such a dispute. In addition, Article 32 of the Constitution gives an extensive Original jurisdiction to the Supreme Court regarding enforcement of Fundamental Rights. It is empowered to issue directions, orders or writs, including writs in the nature of Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Quo Warranto and Certiorari to enforce them.

18. Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court? (2012)

1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States

2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State

3. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory

4. A dispute between two or more States

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 3 and 4 only

18. Answer: (c)

Option (c) is correct: Article 131 of the Indian Constitution deals with the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. The Supreme Court shall, to the exclusion of any other court, have original jurisdiction in any dispute y between the Government of India and one or more States; or

O between the Government of India and any State or States on one side and one or more other States on the other; or

O between two or more States, if and in so far as the dispute involves any question (whether of law or fact) on which the existence or extent of a legal right depends: Provided that the said jurisdiction shall not extend to a dispute arising out of any treaty, agreement, covenant, engagements, and or other similar instrument which, having been entered into or executed before the commencement of this Constitution, continues in operation after such commencement, or which provides that the said jurisdiction shall not extend to such a dispute

Additional Information:

O The Supreme Court has original, appellate, and advisory jurisdiction. In addition, Article 32 of the Constitution gives an extensive original jurisdiction to the Supreme Court in regard to enforcement of Fundamental Rights. It is empowered to issue directions, orders or writs, including writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari to enforce them.

19. What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India? (2012)

1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India.

2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only.

3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote.

4. All appointments of officers and staff of the Supreme Court of India are made by the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

19. Answer: (a)

The Supreme Court has been assigned a very significant role in the Indian democratic political system. It is a federal court, the highest court of appeal, the guarantor of the fundamental rights of the citizens and guardian of the Constitution. Therefore, its independence becomes very essential for the effective discharge of the duties assigned to it. Statement 1 is correct: The chief justice is appointed by the president after consultation with such judges of the Supreme Court and high courts as he deems necessary. The other judges are appointed by the president after consultation with the chief justice and such other judges of the Supreme Court and the high courts as he deems necessary.

Statement 2 is not correct: A judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from his Office by an order of the president. The President can issue the removal order only after an address by Parliament has been presented to him in the same session for such removal. 5 The address must be supported by a special majority of each House of Parliament (ie, a majority of the total membership of that House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting).

Statement 3 is correct: The salaries, allowances and pensions of the judges and the staff as well as all the administrative expenses of the Supreme Court are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India

Statement 4 is not correct: The Chief Justice of India can appoint officers and servants of the Supreme Court without any interference from the executive. He can also prescribe their conditions of service.

Local Self Government

1. Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in (2017)

(a) Federalism

(b) Democratic decentralisation

(d) Direct democracy

1. Answer: (b) Option (b) is correct:

Local self-government has been entrenched in all the states of India by the acts of the State Legislatures to build democracy at the grass-root level. It is entrusted with rural development. It was Constitutionalised through the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992. Balwant Rai G Mehta committee submitted its report in November 1957 and suggested the establishment of the scheme of ‘democratic decentralisation’, which finally came to be known as Panchayati Raj.

2. Consider the following statements: (2016)

1. The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of a panchayat is 25 years.

2. A panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder period.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

2. Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is not correct: The 73rd Constitution amendment Act of 1992 provided for a three tier system of Panchayati raj in every state, that is, panchayats at the village, intermediate, and district levels. All the members of panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels shall be elected directly by the people. 21 years to be the minimum age for contesting elections to panchayats.

Statement 2 is correct: A panchayat constituted upon the dissolution of a panchayat before the expiration of its duration shall continue only for the remainder of the period for which the dissolved panchayat would have continued had it not been so dissolved. In other words, a panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution does not enjoy the full period of five years but remains in office only for the remainder of the period.

3. With reference to “Gram Nyayalayas Acts”, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016)

1. As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear only civil cases and not criminal cases.

2. The Act allows local social activists as mediators/conciliators.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

3. Answer: (b) Statement 1 is not correct: The Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008 has been enacted to provide for the establishment of the Gram Nyayalayas at the grass roots level for the purposes of providing access to justice to the citizens at their doorsteps and to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen due to social, economic, or other disabilities. The Gram Nyayalaya shall be a mobile court and shall exercise the powers of both Criminal and Civil Courts.

Statement 2 is correct: The Gram Nyayalayas try to settle the disputes as far as possible by bringing about conciliation between the parties and for this purpose, it makes use of the mediators or conciliators to be appointed for this purpose. Social activists and people involved with Non-Governmental Organisations provide their service as a mediator or conciliator for quick and easy resolution of disputes

4. The fundamental object of the Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following? (2015)

1. People’s participation in development

2. Political accountability

3. Democratic decentralisation

4. Financial mobilisation

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

4. Answer: (c) Option (c) is correct:

Panchayati Raj functions as a system of governance, with people’s participation in development, in which gram panchayats are the basic units of local administration. The system has three levels: Gram Panchayat (village level), Mandal Parishad or Block Samiti of Panchayat Samiti (block level), and Zila Parishad (district level). Balwant Rai G Mehta Committee submitted its report in November 1957 and recommended the establishment of the scheme of ‘democratic decentralisation’, which ultimately came to be known as Panchayati Raj.

Elimination Technique The fundamental object of the Panchayati Raj system is to ensure People’s participation in development and Democratic decentralisation.

5. The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective? (2013)

(a) To provide self-governance

(b) To recognize traditional rights

(d) To free tribal people from exploitation

5. Answer: (c)

PESA is a law enacted by the Government of India to cover the “Scheduled Areas”, which are not covered in the 73rd Constitutional Amendment. This particular Act extends the provisions of Part IX to the Scheduled Areas of the country.

O PESA brought powers further down to the Gram Sabha level. The Gram Sabha in the Panchayat Act was entrusted with wide ranging powers starting from consultation on land acquisition to that of ownership over minor forest produces and leasing of minor minerals.

O The PESA Act enables Tribal Self Rule in their areas. The Act extended the provisions of Panchayats to the tribal areas of nine states that have Fifth Schedule Areas. Most of the Northeastern states under Sixth Schedule Areas (where autonomous councils exist) are not covered by PESA, as these states have their own Autonomous councils for governance. (Option (c) is correct)

6. Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process of determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both? (2013)

(a) State Forest Department

(b) District Collector/ Deputy Commissioner

(d) Gram Sabha

6. Answer: (d) Scheduled

Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, has been enacted to recognize and vest the forest rights and occupation of forest land in forest-dwelling Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers, who have been residing in such forests for generations, but whose rights could not be recorded.

Option (d) is correct: Under Section 6(1) of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Rights) Act, 2006, the Gram Sabha is the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both that may be given to the forest-dwelling Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers within the local limits of its jurisdiction under the Act by receiving claims, consolidating and verifying them and preparing a map delineating the area of each recommended claim in such manner as may be prescribed for the exercise of such rights and the Gram Sabha shall, then, pass a resolution to that effect and thereafter forward a copy of the same to the Sub-Divisional Level Committee.

7. In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha? (2012)

1. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas.

2. Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce.

3. Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting licence or mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

7. Answer: (b)

The Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act was enacted by the Government of India to cover the “Scheduled Areas”, which are not covered in the 73rd Constitutional amendment. This particular Act extends the provisions of Part IX to the Scheduled Areas of the country. PESA brought powers further down to the Gram Sabha level. Under PESA Act, the Gram Sabha are endowed specifically with:

O The power to enforce prohibition or to regulate or restrict the sale and consumption of any intoxicant.

O The power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas and to take appropriate action to restore any unlawfully alienated land of a Scheduled Tribe. (Statement 1 is correct) y The ownership of minor forest produce. (Statement 2 is correct)

O The power to manage village markets.

O The recommendations of the Gram Sabha or the Panchayats at the appropriate level shall be made mandatory prior to grant of prospecting licence or mining lease for minor minerals in the Scheduled Areas. (Statement 3 is not correct).

O Every Gram Sabha shall be competent to safeguard and preserve the traditions and customs of the people, their cultural identity, community resources and the customary mode of dispute resolution.

8. The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act, 1992, which aims at promoting the Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country, provides for which of the following? (2011)

1. Constitution of District Planning Committees.

2. State Election Commissions to conduct all Panchayat elections.

3. Establishment of State Finance Commissions.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

8. Answer: (d)

Option 1 is correct: The 73rd and the 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts, 1992 enjoin upon the states to establish a three-tier system of Panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels, and Municipalities in the urban areas, respectively. States are expected to devolve adequate powers, responsibilities, and finances upon these bodies so as to enable them to prepare plans and implement schemes for economic development and social justice. This Act mandated the establishment of the District Planning Committee (DPC) for consolidating plans prepared by Panchayats and Municipalities in the district into the Draft District Plan.

Option 2 is correct: The Constitution (SeventyThird Amendment) Act, 1992, provided for the formation of the State Election Commission for the superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all elections to the Panchayats. Option 3 is correct: The Constitution (SeventyThird Amendment) Act, 1992 mandated that the Governor of a state shall, after every five years, constitute a State Finance Commission to review the financial position of the Panchayats.

9. Consider the following statements: (2011)

In India, a Metropolitan Planning Committee

1. is constituted under the provisions of the Constitution of India.

2. prepares the draft development plans for the metropolitan area.

3. has the sole responsibility for implementing Government sponsored schemes in the metropolitan area.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

9. Answer: (a)

The 74th Amendment Act,1992 has added a new Part IX-A to the Constitution of India. This Part is entitled as ‘The Municipalities’ and consists of provisions from Articles 243-P to 243-ZG. In addition, the Act has also added a new Twelfth Schedule to the Constitution. This Schedule contains 18 functional items of Municipalities. The Act gave constitutional status to the Municipalities.

Statement 1 is correct: Metropolitan Planning Committee was formed through 74th Amendment Act, 1992.

Statement 2 is correct: Every metropolitan area shall have a Metropolitan Planning Committee to prepare a draft development plan.

Statement 3 is not correct: Metropolitan Planning Committee does not have the sole responsibility for implementing Government sponsored schemes in the metropolitan area.

7. Governance

1. With reference to India, consider the following pairs: (2023)

Action: The Act under which it is covered

1. Unauthorised wearing of police or military uniforms : The Official Secrets Act, 1923

2. Knowingly misleading or otherwise interfering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their duties : The Indian Evidence Act, 1872

3. Celebratory gunfire which can endanger the personal safety of others : The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

1. Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is correct: THE OFFICIAL SECRETS ACT, 1923 – Section 6 in The Official Secrets Act, 1923 6. Unauthorised use of uniforms, falsification of reports, forgery, personation and false documents.— (1) If any person for the purpose of gaining admission or of assisting any other person to gain admission to a prohibited place or for any other purpose prejudicial to the safety of the State— (a) uses or wears, without lawful authority, any naval, military, air force, police or other official uniform, or any uniform so nearly resembling the same as to be calculated to deceive, or falsely represents himself to be a person who is or has been entitled to use or wear any such uniform.

Statement 2 is incorrect: THE OFFICIAL SECRETS ACT, 1923- No person in the vicinity of any prohibited place shall obstruct, knowingly mislead or otherwise interfere with or impede, any police officer, or any member of 3 [the Armed Forces of the Union] engaged on guard, Sentry, patrol, or other similar duty in relation to the prohibited place.

Statement 3 is correct: ARMS (AMENDMENT) ACT, 2019- Whoever uses firearm in a rash or negligent manner or in celebratory gunfire so as to endanger human life or personal safety of others shall be punishable with an imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine which may extend to rupees one lakh, or with both.

2. Consider the following statements: (2022)

1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization

2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 3

2. Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is not correct: India Sanitation Coalition (ISC) is a multi-stakeholder platform that brings together the private sector, government, financial institutions, civil society groups, media, donors/bi-lateral/multilateral, experts etc. to work in the sanitation space to drive sustainable sanitation through a partnership model.

Statement 2 is correct: The National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA) is India’s leading national think tank on urban planning and development. As a hub for generation and dissemination of cutting-edge research in the urban sector, NIUA seeks to provide innovative solutions to address the challenges of a fast-urbanising India. It has worked closely with the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, alongside other government and civil sectors, to identify key areas of research, and address the lacunae in urban policy and planning

3. With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements: (2022)

1. The Tea Board is a statutory body.

2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.

3. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.

4. The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 4

(d) 1 and 4

3. Answer: (d)

Statements 1 and 4 are correct: The Tea Board was established on 1st April 1954 as a statutory body in accordance with Section (4) of the Tea Act 1953. As the apex body, it takes care of the overall development of the tea industry. The Board is headed by a Chairman and consists of 30 members appointed by the Government of India representing different sections of the tea industry. For the purpose of tea promotion, three overseas offices are located in London, Dubai and Moscow.

Statements 2 and 3 are not correct: It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. The Head Office of the Board is located at Kolkata and has two Regional Offices in the North-East Zone at Jorhat in Assam and Coonoor in Tamil Nadu in the South Zone. In addition, there are 18 regional offices spread across all major tea producing states and four metropolitan cities.

4. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements: (2021)

1. N. Gopalaswamy Ayyangar Committee suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it.

2. In 1970, the Department of Personnel was constituted on the Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime Minister’s charge.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

4. Answer: (b) Statement 1 is not correct:

Sh. N. Gopalaswamy Ayyangar, in his Report, ‘ Reorganisation of the Machinery of Central Government’ in 1950, recommended the grouping of ministries, improvement in the personnel’s capabilities, and the working of the O&Ms Division. It nowhere mentions that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it.

Statement 2 is correct: In 1970, based on the recommendations of the Administrative Reforms Commission, the Department of Personnel was set up in the Cabinet Secretariat. It was placed under the Prime Minister’s Office. The Administrative Reforms Commission had in its report on Machinery of the Government of India, and its procedure of work recommended inter-alia setting up of a separate Department of Personnel directly under the Prime Minister

5. At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006? (2021)

(a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

(b) Ministry of Panchayati Raj

(d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs

5. Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct: The Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the nodal agency at the national level to ensure the effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act 2006. The preamble to the FRA clearly states it be ‘An Act to recognize and vest the forest rights and occupation in forest land in forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers who have been residing in such forests for generations but whose rights could not be recorded. It provides a framework for recording the forest rights so vested and the nature of evidence required for such recognition and vesting in respect of forest land.

6. Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards: (2021)

1. Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under the Article 18 (1) of the Constitution of India.

2. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once.

3. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year.

Which of the above statements are not correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

6. Answer: (d)

statement 1 is not correct: National awards such as Bharat Ratna, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri do not amount to titles within the meaning of Article 18(1) of the Constitution. Article 18(1) abolishes all titles. It prohibits the State to confer titles on anybody, whether a citizen or a non-citizen. Military and academic distinctions are, however, exempted from the prohibition. Thus, a university can give a title of honour to a man of merit. Statement 2 is not correct: Padma Awards were instituted in 1954 to be awarded to citizens of India in recognition of their distinguished contribution in various spheres of activity. The government suspended the practice of granting the Padma awards for two years in 1977. It was again suspended in mid-1992 when 2 PILs were filed in the High Courts of India. They are given in three categories: Padma Vibhushan (for exceptional and distinguished service), Padma Bhushan (distinguished service of higher-order) and Padma Shri (distinguished service).

Statement 3 is not correct: A maximum of 3 people can be awarded the Bharat Ratna. The total number of Padma awards to be conferred each year is limited to 120. But the count excludes posthumous awards and any nonresident Indian or Overseas Citizen of India or foreign-based winners.

7. With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct? (2020)

1. MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for health, education, etc.

2. A specified portion of each MP’s fund must benefit SC/ST populations.

3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on a yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next year.

4. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation every year.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

7. Answer: (d) Statement 1 is correct:

The funds under Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme have objectives to create durable community assets and for the provision of basic facilities including physical infrastructure for health, education, etc., based on locally felt needs.

Statement 2 is correct: There is a special focus on areas inhabited by Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe populations by earmarking 15% and 7.5 % of the MPLADS funds, respectively. Out of an amount of Rs.5 Crores, the M.P. shall recommend for areas inhabited by the SC population, Rs.75 lakhs, and Rs.37.5 lakhs for areas inhabited by ST population. Statement 3 is not correct: The annual entitlement of Rs 5 crore shall be released, in two equal instalments of Rs 2.5 crore each, by Government of India directly to the District Authority based on unspent amount and utilisation certificate. The funds are non lapsable and can be carried forward.

Statement 4 is correct: The District Authority would be responsible for overall coordination and supervision of the works under the scheme at the district level and inspect at least 10% of the works under implementation every year. The District Authority should involve the MPs in the inspections of projects to the extent feasible.

8. Consider the following statements: (2020)

1. Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months.

2. State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhar data.

3. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products.

4. Aadhar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated fund of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

8. Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is not correct: A Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court ruled that the Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored beyond six months.

Statement 2 is correct: Part of Section 57 of the Aadhaar Act, enabling body corporate and individuals to seek authentication, has been held unconstitutional by the Supreme Court. Statement 3 is not correct: In the 2018 judgement, the Supreme Court held that Aadhar is not mandatory to purchase the insurance products, however, it can be voluntarily used for KYC of the insurance products. Even IRDA has made similar rules.

Statement 4 is correct: The Supreme Court ruled that any welfare scheme, driving funds out of the Consolidated Fund of India, would require Aadhar to deliver the benefits to the intended beneficiaries.

8. Constitutional and Non-constitutional Bodies

1. Consider the following organisations/ bodies in India: (2023)

1. The National Commission for Backward Classes

2. The National Human Rights Commission

3. The National Law Commission

4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission

How many of the above are constitutional bodies?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

1. Answer: (a)

1. The National Commission for Backward Classes: It is a statutory body rather than a constitutional body. It was established under the National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993, to investigate and recommend measures for the advancement of socially and educationally backward classes.

2. The National Human Rights Commission: It is a constitutional body in India. It was established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. The NHRC is responsible for protecting and promoting human rights and has the power to inquire into violations of human rights and recommend necessary actions.

3. The National Law Commission: The National Law Commission is not a constitutional body. It is a statutory body that was established in 1955 by an executive order of the Government of India. The commission’s primary role is to study and review existing laws, suggest reforms, and propose new legislations to promote justice and legal reforms in the country.

4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission: The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC) is not a constitutional body. It is a statutory body established under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986. The NCDRC is responsible for adjudicating consumer disputes at the national level and providing redressal mechanisms for consumers.

2. Consider the following statements : (2022)

1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.

2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

2. Answer: (d) Statement 1 is incorrect Article 88: Rights of Ministers and Attorney General in respects Houses Every Minister and the Attorney General of India shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of either House, any joint sitting of the Houses, and any committee of Parliament of which he may be named a member, but shall not by virtue of this article be entitled to vote Officers of Parliament. No mention of Solicitor General of India.

Statement 2 is incorrect Article 76: The Attorney General shall hold office during the pleasure of the President, and shall receive such remuneration as the President may determine Conduct of Government Business.

Elimination Technique The Solicitor General of India is not allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

3. Consider the following statements: (2017)

1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.

2. The Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and by-elections.

3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only

3. Answer: (d) The Election Commission is a permanent and independent body established by the Constitution of India directly to ensure free and fair elections in the country.

Statement 1 is not correct: According to Article 324, the Election Commission shall consist of the Chief Election Commissioner and such number of other Election Commissioners, if any, as the President may form a time-to-time fix. At present, there are two members apart from the Chief Election Commissioner.

Statement 2 is not correct: Article 324 of the Constitution provides that the power of superintendence, direction, and control of elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, the office of President of India and the office of vice-President of India shall be vested in the Election Commission.

Statement 3 is correct: The Commission also resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties. However, the decision of the ECI can be challenged in the Courts.

Elimination Technique

O The Election Commission of India is a three-member body.

O The Election Commission decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and byelections.

O Hence 1 and 2 are incorrect.

4. Consider the following statements: (2013) Attorney General of India can

1. take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha

2. be a member of a Committee of the Lok Sabha

3. speak in the Lok Sabha

4. vote in the Lok Sabha

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

4. Answer: (c) The Attorney General for India is the Central government’s Chief Legal Advisor, and its primary lawyer in the Supreme Court of India. He is a part of the Union Executive.

O The Attorney General (AG) is appointed by the President under Article 76 (1) of the Indian Constitution and is the highest law officer of the country. He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a Judge of the Supreme Court. The term of office of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution. Further, the Constitution does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal. He holds office during the pleasure of the President.

O The Attorney General of India has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of either House, any joint sitting of both the Houses and any Committee of Parliament, without being entitled to vote. (Option (c) is correct)

5. Which of the following bodies does not/ do not find mention in the Constitution? (2013)

1. National Development Council

2. Planning Commission

3. Zonal Councils

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

5. Answer: (d) Option (d) is correct:

All the three bodies, National Development Council, Planning Commission and Zonal Councils, do not find mention in the Indian Constitution.

O National Development Council: It was set up on 6th August 1952 to strengthen and mobilise the effort and resources of the nation in support of the plan, to promote common economic policy in all vital spheres, and to ensure the balanced and rapid development of all parts of the country. It is not a Constitutional Body.

O Planning Commission: The Planning Commission was set up in pursuance of declared objectives of the government to promote a rapid rise in the standard of living of the people by efficient exploitation of the resources of the country, increasing production and offering opportunities to all for employment in the service of the community. It is neither a Constitutional nor a Statutory Body.

O Zonal Councils: They are Advisory Councils and are made up of the states of India that have been grouped into five zones to foster cooperation among them. These were set up vide Part-III of the States Reorganisation Act, 1956.

6. Which of the following is /are among the noticeable features of the recommendations of the Thirteenth Finance Commission? (2012)

1. A design for the Goods and Services Tax, and a compensation package linked to adherence to the proposed design.

2. A design for the creation of lakhs of jobs in the next ten years in consonance with India’s demographic dividend.

3. Devolution of a specified share of central taxes to local bodies as grants.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

6. Answer: (c)

The Finance Commission is constituted by the President under Article 280 of the Constitution. Its main work is to give recommendations on distribution of central tax revenues between the Union and the States. Option (c) is correct: The Thirteenth Finance Commission was constituted under the chairmanship of Dr. Vijay Kelkar. The Commission submitted its report in Parliament on February 25, 2010.

The major recommendations of the Commission were:

O The share of states in the net proceeds of the shareable central taxes should be 32%. This is 1.5 percentage-points higher than the recommendation of the 12th finance commission.

O 2.5% share of the divisible pool for local bodies in the form of grants, as the Constitution does not allow the sharing of tax revenues with them. While 1.5% will be constant, 1% will be on the basis of performance.

O Revenue deficit to be progressively reduced and eliminated, followed by revenue surplus by 2013–2014.

O Fiscal deficit to be reduced to 3% of the gross domestic product (GDP) by 2014– 2015.

O A target of 68% of GDP for the combined debt of centre and states.

O Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003 needs to be amended to mention the nature of shocks which shall require targets relaxation. y Both Centre and States should conclude ‘Grand Bargain’ to implement the model Goods and Services Act (GST). To incentivize the states, the commission recommended a sanction of the grant of Rs 500 billion.

O Initiatives to reduce the number of Central Sponsored Schemes (CSS) and to restore the predominance of formula-based plan grants.

O States need to address the problem of losses in the power sector in a time bound manner. Elimination Technique A design for the creation of lakhs of jobs in the next ten years was not the recommendations of the Thirteenth Finance Commission. Hence 2 is incorrect.

7. In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)? (2012)

1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency/financial emergency.

2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.

3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.

4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

7. Answer: (c)

The Constitution of India (Article 148) provides for an independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG). He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department. He is the guardian of the public purse and controls the entire financial system of the country at both the levels–the Centre and the state. His duty is to uphold the Constitution of India and laws of Parliament in the field of financial administration. Statement 1 is not correct: The role of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) is to uphold the Constitution of India and the laws of Parliament in the field of financial administration. The accountability of the executive (i.e., council of ministers) to the Parliament in the sphere of financial administration is secured through audit reports of the CAG. He is responsible only to the Parliament.

Statement 2 is correct: The CAG submits three audit reports to the President—audit report on appropriation accounts, audit report on finance accounts, and audit report on public undertakings. The President lays these reports before both the Houses of Parliament. After this, the Public Accounts Committee examines them and reports its findings to the Parliament.

Statement 3 is correct: Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances. Later, the High Court of Karnataka in Karnataka Power Corporation vs Emta Coal Limited on 12 April 2016 has held that the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) cannot be the sole basis for any liability being caused or for prosecution to be launched.

Statement 4 is not correct: While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG does not have judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.

8. With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following statements is correct? (2011)

(a) It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructure development

(b) It facilitates the proper distribution of finances among the Public Sector Undertakings

(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context

8. Answer: (d)

Article 280 of the Constitution of India provides for a Finance Commission as a Quasi-Judicial Body. The Finance Commission consists of a Chairman and four other members to be appointed by the President. They hold office for such a period as specified by the President in his order. They are eligible for reappointment. The Finance Commission is required to make recommendations to the President of India on the following matters:

O The distribution of the net proceeds of taxes to be shared between the centre and the states, and the allocation between the states of the respective shares of such proceeds.

O The principles that should govern the grants-in-aid to the states by the centre (i.e., out of the Consolidated Fund of India).

O The measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a state to supplement the resources of the panchayats and the municipalities in the state on the basis of the recommendations made by the State Finance Commission.

O Any other matter referred to it by the President in the interests of sound finance.

Option (d) is correct: None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context.

9.Judicial & Quasi-Judicial Bodies

1. In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of the following types of citizens? (2020)

1. Person with an annual income of less than Rs. 1,00,000

2. Transgender with an annual income of less than Rs. 2,00,000

3. Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with an annual income of less than Rs. 3,00,000

4. All Senior Citizens

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 4 only

1. Answer: (a)

Under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, the National Legal Services Authority, is constituted to provide free legal services to the weaker section of the society and to provide Lok Adalats to settle disputes amicably.

Statement 1 and statement 2 are correct: The sections of the society as enlisted under Section 12 of the Legal Services Authorities Act are entitled for free legal services, they are:

O A member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe.

O A victim of trafficking in human beings or beggar as referred to in Article 23 of the Constitution.

O A woman or a child.

O A mentally ill or otherwise disabled person.

O A person under circumstances of undeserved want such as being a victim of a mass disaster, ethnic violence, caste atrocity, flood, drought, earthquake, or industrial disaster; or

O An industrial worker.

O Income level: Low income (Annual income less than Rs 1,00,000), Senior citizen (Annual income less than Rs 2,00,000), Transgend (Annual income less than Rs 2,00,000).

2. In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.? (2019)

1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament

2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees

3. Finance Commission

4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission

5. NITI Aayog

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 2 and 5 only

2. Answer: (a) Option (a) is correct:

In India, the Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament and the Parliamentary Department related Standing Committees review the independent regulators in various sectors. Finance Commission, Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission, NITI Aayog have no role in reviewing the independent regulators.

O Ad-Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament: They are appointed for a specific purpose and they cease to exist when they finish the task assigned to them and submit a report. They are appointed by the House or the Speaker or the Presiding Officer of both the Houses in consultation with each other as and when necessary for a particular purpose. They have also been set up to investigate serious issues which involve frauds or corruption on a large scale.

O Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees: There are 24 departmentally related Standing Committees in India. They cover under their jurisdiction Central Ministries/ Departments and while reviewing their work they also look into the working of the regulators in their specific departments.

3. With reference to the National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements: (2013)

1. Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.

2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programs and schemes throughout the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

3. Answer: (c)

Statement 1 is correct: The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) has been constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 to provide free Legal Services to the weaker sections of the society and to organise Lok Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes.

Statement 2 is correct: In every State, the State Legal Services Authority has been constituted to give effect to the policies and directions of the NALSA and to give free legal services to the people and conduct Lok Adalats in the State. The NALSA lays down policies, principles, guidelines and frames effective and economic schemes for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the Legal Services Programmes throughout the country.

O The State Legal Services Authority is headed by the Hon’ble Chief Justice of the respective High Court who is the Patron-in -inChief of the State Legal Services Authority In every District, District Legal Services Authority has been constituted to implement Legal Services Programmes in the District. The District Legal Services Authority is situated in the District Courts Complex in every District and chaired by the District Judge of the respective district

Additional Information:

O Article 39A of the Constitution of India provides for free legal aid to the poor and weaker sections of the society and ensures justice for all.

O Articles 14 and 22(1) of the Constitution also make it obligatory for the State to ensure equality before law.

4. With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements: (2012)

1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.

2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State

Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

The Delimitation Act, 2002, was enacted to set up a Delimitation Commission for the purpose of effecting delimitation on the basis of the 2001 census so as to correct the aforesaid distortion in the sizes of electoral constituencies. The proposed Delimitation Commission would also re-fix the number of seats for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes on the basis of the 2001 census, without affecting the total number of seats based on the 1971 census.

Statement 1 is correct: The process ofDelimitation involves fixing the boundaries of constituencies. Article 82 of the Constitution authorises Parliament to enact a Delimitation Act after every Census which establishes a delimitation commission. The main task of the commission is to redraw the boundaries of the various assembly and Lok Sabha constituencies to ensure an equitable population distribution. Delimitation commissions have been set up by the parliament four times in the past under ‘Delimitation Commission Acts’ of 1952, 1962, 1972 and 2002. Delimitation commission is a high-powered body appointed by the president of India once parliament enact the delimitation law. Its orders have a tender of law. Its orders cannot be questioned in a court of law.

Statement 2 is correct: When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot affect any modifications in the orders. This means, the copies of the orders are laid before the Lok Sabha and the respective legislative assemblies, but no change in the orders is permitted.

Elimination Technique The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court. Hence 1 is correct.

9. INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS

1. Consider the following countries: (2015)

1. China

2. France

3. India

4. Israel

5. Pakistan

Which among the above are Nuclear Weapons States as recognized by the Treaty on the Nonproliferation of Nuclear Weapons, commonly known as Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

1. Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: The Treaty on the NonProliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT), which entered into force in March 1970, seeks to inhibit the spread of nuclear weapons. Its 190 (191 with North Korea*) states-parties are classified in two categories: nuclear-weapon states (NWS)- consisting of the United States, Russia, China, France, and the United Kingdom and non-nuclear-weapon states (NNWS)- remaining all other states. Under the treaty, the five NWS commit to pursuing general and complete disarmament, while the NEWS agree to forgo developing or acquiring nuclear weapons.

Elimination Technique India did not join or sign the Nuclear NonProliferation Treaty (NPT). So, options (b), (c), and (d) can be easily eliminated. Therefore, we can mark option (a) as the correct answer.

2. With reference to “Look East Policy” of India, consider the following statements: (2011)

1. India wants to establish itself as an important regional player in East Asian affairs.

2. India wants to plug the vacuum created by the termination of the Cold War.

3. India wants to restore the historical and cultural ties with its neighbours in Southeast and East Asia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

2. Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct: The Look East policy emerged as an important foreign policy initiative of India in the post-Cold War period. It was launched in 1991 by the Narasimha Rao government to develop political contacts, increasing economic integration, and forging security cooperation with countries of Southeast Asia. The policy marked a shift in India’s perspective of the world, with the strategic and economic importance of Southeast Asia to India’s national interests being recognised. The second phase, which began in 2003, extends the coverage of the Look East policy from Australia to East Asia, with the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) as its core. The new phase thus marks a shift in focus from trade to wider economic and security cooperation, political partnerships, and physical connectivity through road and rail links.

India & Its Neighbours

1. Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritisation and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019)

(a) Japan

(b) Russia

(d) The United States of America

1. Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct: An ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ was jointly signed by India and Russia in October 2018 in New Delhi. The document was signed by the Director General of Rosatom State Atomic Energy Corporation and Secretary of the Department of Atomic Energy and the Chairman of the Atomic Energy Commission of India. With the signing of the document, the two countries plan to implement the project of six nuclear power units of Russian design at a new site in India, as well as further cooperation in third countries in new promising areas of nuclear technology, apart from the construction of nuclear power plants. At present India and Russia are jointly involved in the Rooppur Nuclear Power Plant project in Bangladesh.

2. What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India? (2017)

(a) India’s trade with African countries will increase enormously.

(b) India’s relations with oil-producing Arab countries will be strengthened.

(d) Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India.

Option (c) is correct: The first and foremost significance of the Chabahar port is the fact that India can bypass Pakistan in transporting goods to Afghanistan and Central Asia. Chabahar port will boost India’s access to Iran, the key gateway to the International NorthSouth Transport Corridor that has sea, rail and road routes between India, Russia, Iran, Europe, and Central Asia. Chabahar port will be beneficial to India in countering Chinese presence in the Arabian Sea, which China is trying to ensure by helping Pakistan develop the Gwadar port. Gwadar port is less than 400 km from Chabahar by road and 100 km by sea.

3. ‘Belt and Road Initiative’ is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of: (2016)

(a) African Union

(b) Brazil

(d) China

3. Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct: The Belt and Road Initiative (BRI) is a transcontinental long-term policy and investment program which aims at infrastructure development and acceleration of the economic integration of countries along the route of the historic Silk Road. The Initiative was unveiled by China in 2013. BRI aims to promote the connectivity of Asian, European, and African continents and their adjacent seas, establish and strengthen partnerships among the countries along the Belt and Road, set up all-dimensional, multitiered and composite connectivity networks, and realise diversified, independent, balanced and sustainable development in these countries.

International Groups and Political Organizations-Explanation

1. Consider the following statements about G-20: (2023)

1. The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss international economic and financial issues.

2. Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s G-20 priorities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Statement 1 is correct: The G20 (Group of Twenty) was indeed initially established as a forum for Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss international economic and financial matters. It was created in 1999 in response to the financial crises of the late 1990s and aimed to enhance cooperation and policy coordination among major economies. Statement 2 is correct: India has placed a focus on digital public infrastructure as one of its priorities within the G20. India has recognized the potential of digital technologies to drive economic growth, enhance governance, and improve public service delivery.Under the G20 framework, India has advocated for initiatives and policies that promote digital inclusion, digital infrastructure development, and digital innovation. This includes efforts to expand broadband connectivity, improve digital skills and literacy, promote digital payments, and harness emerging technologies such as artificial intelligence and blockchain.

2. With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements: (2022)

1. A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baseline determined in accordance with the convention.

2. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea.

3. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

2. Answer: (d)

Statement 1 is correct: The coastal States exercise sovereignty over their territorial sea which they have the right to establish its breadth up to a limit not to exceed 12 nautical miles; foreign vessels are allowed “innocent passage” through those waters.

Statement 2 is correct: Under Article 17 of the UNCLOS III Right of Innocent Passage is defined as “Subject to this Convention, ships of all States, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea”, and the Passage is defined under Article 18.

Statement 3 is correct: The coastal State shall delineate the outer limits of its continental shelf, where that shelf extends beyond 200 nautical miles from the baselines from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured, by straight lines not exceeding 60 nautical miles in length, connecting fixed points, defined by the coordinates of latitude and longitude.

3. With reference to the “United Nations Credentials Committee”, consider the following statements: (2022)

1. It is a committee set up by the UN Security Council and works under its supervision.

2. It traditionally meets in March, June and September every year.

3. It assesses the credentials of all UN members before submitting a report to the General Assembly for approval.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 3 only

(b) 1 and 3

(d) 1 and 2

3. Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: In most cases, accreditation at the UN is a formality whereby the General Assembly approves specific individuals to represent a Member State. According to this procedure, the Head of State or Government or Minister for Foreign Affairs of a Member State submits documentation to the UN SecretaryGeneral stating that the named individuals are entitled to represent that Member State. The documentation is referred to a Credentials Committee appointed by the General Assembly at the beginning of each regular session (month of September). Thus, the review of the credentials of UN Member States is an annual process. The Credentials Committee examines the credentials and determines whether they are complete and have been issued by the proper authority, but it does not generally inquire into the legitimacy of the issuing authority. The Committee then submits a report to the General Assembly recommending either rejection or approval of the credentials of the representatives of all Member States. Typically, the General Assembly adopts the Committee’s recommendations without discussion.

4. With reference to the United Nations General Assembly, consider the following statements :

1. The UN General Assembly can grant observer status to the non-member States.

2. Inter-governmental organisations can seek observer status in the UN General Assembly.

3. Permanent Observers in the UN General Assembly can maintain missions at the UN headquarters.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

4. Answer: (d)

According to the Charter of the United Nations, the General Assembly may: Elect the non-permanent members of the Security Council and the members of other United Nations councils and organs and, on the recommendation of the Security Council, appoint the Secretary-General. Make recommendations on maintaining international peace and security, including disarmament. Discuss any question relating to international peace and security (except where a dispute or situation is currently being discussed by the Security Council) Make recommendations to promote international political cooperation, the development and codification of international law, the realisation of human rights and fundamental freedoms, and international collaboration in the economic, social, humanitarian, cultural, educational and health fields. Make recommendations for the peaceful settlement of any situation that might impair friendly relations among countries The Assembly may also take action in cases of a threat to the peace, breach of peace or act of aggression, when the Security Council has failed to act owing to the negative vote of a permanent member.

Statement 1 is correct: The UN General Assembly can grant observer status to the non-member States.

Statement 2 is correct: Inter-governmental organisations can seek observer status in the UN General Assembly.

Statement 3 is correct: Permanent Observers in the UN General Assembly can maintain missions at the UN headquarters.

5. Consider the following : (2022)

1. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank

2. Missile Technology Control Regime

3. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation

India is a member of which of the above?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

5. Answer: (d)

The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) is a multilateral development bank that aims to improve economic and social outcomes in Asia. India became a member in 2016. The Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) is a multilateral export control regime whose members have an informal political understanding to limit the proliferation of missiles and missile technology. India became a member of the MTCR in 2016. The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) is a permanent intergovernmental international organisation, created on 15 June 2001 in Shanghai (China). India became a member in 2017

6. With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements: (2022)

1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club.

2. It is an initiative to support Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

6. Answer: (c)

Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct The Common Framework for Debt Treatments beyond the DSSI is an agreement of the G20 and Paris Club countries to coordinate and cooperate on debt treatments for up to 73 low-income countries that are eligible for the Debt Service Suspension Initiative (DSSI). For countries with sustainable debt but liquidity issues, it can provide a deferral of a portion of debt service payments for a number of years that can ease financing pressures. This type of treatment is often referred to as rescheduling or reprofiling. Such a debt treatment can also benefit countries where high debt service payments are a source of debt vulnerability.

7. In which one of the following groups are all the four countries members of G20? (2020)

(a) Argentina, Mexico, South Africa, and Turkey

(b) Australia, Canada, Malaysia, and New Zealand

(d) Indonesia, Japan, Singapore, and South Korea

7. Answer: (a)

The G20 is an informal group of 19 countries and the European Union, with representatives of the International Monetary Fund and the World Bank. The G20 membership comprises a mix of the world’s largest advanced and emerging economies, representing about two-thirds of the world’s population, 85% of global gross domestic product, 80% of global investment and over 75% of global trade. The G20 Presidency rotates annually according to a system that ensures a regional balance over time.

Option (a) is correct: The members of the G20 include Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Republic of Korea, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, Turkey, the United Kingdom, the United States, and the European

8. Consider the following statements: (2019)

1. The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air’.

2. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument.

3. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organised Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly.

4. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

8. Answer: (c)

Statement 1 is not correct: The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) only covers five main areas: preventive measures, criminalization and law enforcement, international cooperation, asset recovery, and technical assistance and information exchange. This convention does not cover the aspect of Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air’.

Statement 2 is correct: The United Nations Convention against Corruption is the only legally binding universal anti-corruption instrument. The Convention’s far-reaching approach and the mandatory character of many of its provisions make it a unique tool for developing a comprehensive response to a global problem.

Statement 3 is not correct: The General Assembly adopted the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organised Crime and two of its supplementary Protocols namely: The Protocol to Prevent, Suppress and Punish Trafficking in Persons, Especially Women and Children and the Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Air and Sea. This convention does not cover the aspect of asset return to rightful owners.

Statement 4 is correct: United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is a global leader in the fight against illicit drugs and international crime. Established in 1997 through a merger between the United Nations Drug Control Programme and the Centre for International Crime Prevention, UNODC operates in all regions of the world through an extensive network of field offices.

9. With reference to the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the following statements: (2019)

1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations.

2. India is the largest shareholder in AIIB.

3. AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

9. Answer: (a)

Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) is a multilateral development bank that aims to support the building of infrastructure in the Asia-Pacific region. It is headquartered in Beijing, China. It offers sovereign and non sovereign financing for sound and sustainable projects in energy and power, transportation and telecommunications, rural infrastructure and agricultural development, water supply and sanitation, environmental protection, and urban development and logistics.

Statement 1 is correct: The bank currently has 103 member nations.

Statement 2 is not correct: China is the largest shareholder (shareholding 30.77%) in AIIB followed by India (shareholding 8.64%), Russia (6.75%) and Germany (4.63%).

Statement 3 is not correct: AIIB has 39 non regional members (members from outside Asia) as well. Some of them are Austria, Canada, Finland, etc.

Elimination Technique: AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia.

Statement 3 is not correct. Thus, Option (a) is correct.

10.Which are the consequence/ consequences of becoming a member of the ‘Nuclear Supplier Group’? (2018)

1. It will have access to the latest and most effective nuclear technologies.

2. It automatically becomes a member of “The Treaty of non-proliferation of Nuclear weapons (NPT)”.

Which of the statements given below is/ are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

10. Answer: (a)

The Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) is a group of nuclear supplier countries that seeks to contribute to the non-proliferation of nuclear weapons through the implementation of two sets of guidelines for nuclear exports and nuclear-related exports.

Statement 1 is correct: All nuclear-based programmes of India are being run on indigenous technology. By becoming a member of the Nuclear Supplier Group (NSG), India will have access to the latest and most effective nuclear technologies. If India becomes a member, it will also have a better international market for export as well as for import of nuclear-related materials.

Statement 2 is not correct: NPT (Nonproliferation Treaty) is an international treaty, which came into force in 1970. The main objective was to prevent the spread of nuclear weapons and weapons technology. The nuclear powers were convinced that the Nuclear NonProliferation Treaty (NPT) alone would not halt the spread of nuclear weapons. Also, joining the NSG will not automatically lead to becoming a member of “The Treaty of non-proliferation of Nuclear weapons (NPT). In a similar case in 2008, India got a ‘clean waiver’ from NSG to do nuclear trade with member countries, where in, it is forbidden to trade with a country who has not signed the NPT.

11. International Labour Organization’s Conventions 138 and 182 are related to: (2018)

(a) Child Labour

(b) Adaptation of agricultural practices to global climate change

(d) Gender parity at the workplace

11. Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: The two International Labour Organization’s (ILO) Conventions on child labour are Convention No. 138 on Minimum Age and Convention No. 182 on the Worst Forms of Child Labour. These Conventions are “fundamental” Conventions. This means that, under the ILO Declaration on Fundamental Principles and Rights at Work, all ILO member States have an obligation to respect, promote and realize the abolition of child labour, even if they have not ratified the Conventions in question.ILO Convention No. 182 is the first ILO Convention to achieve universal ratification. It was also the most rapidly ratified Convention in the history of the ILO, with the majority of ratifications occurring within the first 3 years after it was adopted in 1999. ILO Convention No. 138 has also been widely ratified by ILO member States.

12. In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the ‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’? (2018)

(a) The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.

(b) The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of IAEA.

(d) The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG.

12. Answer: (a) The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) is headquartered in Vienna, Austria. It is the world’s centre for cooperation in the nuclear field and seeks to promote the safe, secure, and peaceful use of nuclear technologies. It was established as an autonomous organisation on 29 July 1957. The IAEA reports to both the United Nations General Assembly and the Security Council.

Option (a) is correct: The Additional Protocol is not a stand-alone agreement, but rather a protocol to a safeguards agreement that provides additional tools for verification. In particular, it significantly increases the IAEA’s ability to verify the peaceful use of all nuclear material in States with comprehensive safeguards agreements. Hence, civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards An Additional Protocol to the Safeguards Agreement between the Government of India and the IAEA for the Application of Safeguards to Civilian Nuclear Facilities entered into force on 25 July 2014.

13. Consider the following countries: (2018)

1. Australia

2. Canada

3. China

4. India

5. Japan6. USA

Which of the above are among the ‘free trade partners’ of ASEAN?

(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only

(b) 3, 4, 5 and 6 only

(d) 2, 3, 4 and 6 only

13. Answer: (c)

The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) was established in August 1967 in Bangkok, Thailand, with the signing of the ASEAN Declaration (Bangkok Declaration). Currently, it has 10 member nations which are: Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, and Vietnam.

Option (c) is correct: ASEAN has a total of 6 free trade partners namely: Australia, New Zealand, South Korea, Japan, India, and China. ASEAN and its 5 free trade partners (excluding India) have entered into a regional trading agreement called the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP). The purpose of RCEP was to make it easier for products and services of each of these countries to be available across this region. India has however chosen to stay out of RCEP.

14.With reference to ‘Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban Development (APMCHUD)’, consider the following statements: (2017)

1. The first APMCHUD was held in India in 2006 on the theme ‘Emerging Urban Forms — Policy Responses and Governance Structure’.

2. India hosts all the Annual Ministerial Conferences in partnership with ADB, APEC and ASEAN.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

14. Answer: (d)

The Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban Development (APMCHUD) is an inter-governmental mechanism for collaboration and cooperation in the field of housing and urban development among the Asia Pacific countries. APMCHUD is composed of the Biennial Ministerial Conference, the Bureau, and the Secretariat. It is represented by the Hon’ble Ministers of Housing and Urban Development of the Asia Pacific countries. The Bureau of APMCHUD elected by the Biennial Conference of Ministers responsible for Housing and Urban Development holds office until the next Conference. The permanent Secretariat of APMCHUD is hosted by India in New Delhi.

Statement 1 and statement 2 are not correct: The first APMCHUD was held in India in 2006 on the theme, “A vision for sustainable urbanisation in the Asia-Pacific by 2020”, was aimed at galvanising government action and political commitment at the regional level to improve the lives of 581 million slum dwellers. Subsequent conferences were held in Tehran, Iran (2008); Solo, Central Java, Indonesia (2010); Amman, Jordan (2012); Seoul, Republic of Korea (2014); New Delhi, India (2016).

15. Consider the following statements: (2017)

1. India has ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) of WTO.

2. TFA is a part of WTO’s Bali Ministerial Package of 2013.

3. TFA came into force in January 2016.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

15. Answer: (a)

The Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) sets forth a series of measures for expeditiously moving goods across borders inspired by the best practices from around the world. It attempts to create an international framework for reducing trade costs. It has provisions that expedite the movement of goods, clearance of goods and release of goods by simplifying customs rules and regulations among the countries.

Statement 1 is correct: India ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement of WTO in 2016. India is the 76th WTO member to accept the TFA.

Statement 2 is correct: TFA was an outcome of the WTO’s 9th Bali (Indonesia) Ministerial package of 2013. The agreement includes provisions for:

O Lowering import tariffs and agricultural subsidies: It makes it easier for developing countries to trade with the developed world in global markets.

O Abolish hard import quotas: Developed countries would abolish hard import quotas on agricultural products from the developing world and instead would only be allowed to charge tariffs on the amount of agricultural imports exceeding specific limits.

o Reduction in red tape at international borders: It aims to reduce red-tapism to facilitate trade by reforming customs bureaucracies and formalities.

Statement 3 is not correct: It came into force in February 2017 and not in 2016.

16. Consider the following in respect of the (IONS): (2017)

1. Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy.

2. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime cooperation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

16. Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is not correct: The inaugural IONS Seminar was held by the Indian Navy in 2008. Subsequent seminars and meetings of the ‘Conclave of Chiefs’ have been held at the commencement of each two-year IONS Chairmanship: the United Arab Emirates in 2010, South Africa in 2012, Australia in 2014, Bangladesh in 2016 and Iran in 2018. In 2020 the IONS Chairmanship rotates to France and in 2022 to Thailand. IONS includes 24 nations that permanently hold territory that abuts or lies within the Indian Ocean and eight observer nations.

Statement 2 is correct: The ‘Indian Ocean Naval Symposium’ (IONS) is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime cooperation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region by providing an open and inclusive forum for discussion of regionally relevant maritime issues. In the process, it endeavours to generate a flow of information between naval professionals that would lead to common understanding and possibly cooperative solutions on the way ahead.

17. With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IORARC)’, Consider the following statements: (2015)

1. It was established very recently in response to incidents of piracy and accidents of oil spills.

2. It is an alliance meant for maritime security only.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

17. Answer: (d)

Statement 1 is not correct: Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR ARC), a regional cooperation initiative of the Indian Ocean Rim countries, was established in Mauritius in March 1997 with the aim of promoting economic and technical cooperation. It was not established in response to incidents of piracy and accidents of oil spills.

Statement 2 is not correct: IOR-ARC is the only pan-Indian ocean grouping. It brings together countries from three continents having different sizes, economic strengths, and a wide diversity of languages, and cultures. It aims to create a platform for trade, and socio-economic and cultural cooperation in the Indian Ocean rim area, which constitutes a population of about two billion people. The Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) is a dynamic inter-governmental organisation aimed at strengthening regional cooperation and sustainable development within the Indian Ocean region through its 23 Member States and 9 Dialogue Partners.

18. India is a member of which of the following? (2015)

1. Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation

2. Association of South-East Asian Nations

3. East Asia Summit

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) India is a member of none of them

18. Answer: (b)

Option 1 is not correct: The Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) is a regional economic forum established in 1989 to leverage the growing interdependence of the Asia-Pacific. APEC’s 21 members are Australia, Brunei Darussalam, Canada, Chile, People’s Republic of China, Hong Kong, Indonesia, Japan, Republic of Korea, Malaysia, Mexico, New Zealand, Papua New Guinea, Peru, Philippines, the Russian Federation, Singapore, Chinese Taipei, Thailand, United States of America and Vietnam. India is not a member of the AsiaPacific economic cooperation.

Option 2 is not correct: The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN), was established in August 1967 in Bangkok, Thailand, with the signing of the ASEAN Declaration (Bangkok Declaration) by the Founding Fathers of ASEAN, namely Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore and Thailand. Later, Brunei Darussalam, Viet Nam, Lao PDR, Myanmar and Cambodia joined ASEAN, making up what is today the ten Member States of ASEAN. India is not a member of ASEAN.

Option 3 is correct: The East Asia Summit (EAS) is the Indo-Pacific’s premier forum for strategic dialogue. The EAS has 18 members – the ten ASEAN countries (Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, Vietnam) along with Australia, China, India, Japan, New Zealand, the Republic of Korea, Russia and the United States.

Elimination Technique India is not a member of the Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC). So, options (a) and (c) can be eliminated. Option (b) is most likely to be the answer.

19. With reference to a grouping of countries known as BRICS, consider the following statements: (2014)

1. The First Summit of BRICS was held in Rio de Janeiro in 2009.

2. South Africa was the last to join the BRICS grouping.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

19. Answer: (b)

BRICS is the acronym for an association of five major emerging national economies: Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa. BRICS is an important grouping bringing together the major emerging economies from the world, comprising 41% of the world population, having 24% of the world GDP and over 16% share in world trade. The first BRIC (Brazil, Russia, India, and China) formal summit commenced on 16th June 2009 in Yekaterinburg (Russia), when South Africa was not a member of the BRIC group. (Statement 1 is not correct)

The BRIC group was renamed as BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa) after South Africa was accepted as a full member at the BRIC Foreign Ministers’ meeting in New York in September 2010.

Accordingly, South Africa attended the 3rd BRICS Summit in Sanya, China on 14 April 2011 and this is the first Summit of South Africa after becoming a member of the BRIC group.

The grouping was originally known as BRIC (Brazil, Russia, India, and China) before the inclusion of South Africa. South Africa was the last to join the BRICS grouping in 2010, after it was accepted as a full member at the BRIC Foreign Ministers’ meeting in New York. (Statement 2 is correct)

20. Consider the following countries: (2014)

1. Denmark

2. Japan

3. Russian Federation

4. United Kingdom

5. United States of America

Which of the above are the members of the ‘Arctic Council’?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 3 and 5

20. Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct: The Arctic Council is a high-level intergovernmental body set up in 1996 by the Ottawa declaration to promote cooperation, coordination and interaction among the Arctic States together with the indigenous communities and other Arctic inhabitants on common Arctic issues, in particular on issues of sustainable development and environmental protection in the Arctic.

O The Arctic Council works as a consensus based body to deal with issues such as the change in biodiversity, melting sea ice, plastic pollution, and black carbon. The Council has members, ad hoc observer countries and “permanent participants”.

O The Ottawa Declaration declares Canada, the Kingdom of Denmark, Finland, Iceland, Norway, the Russian Federation, Sweden and the United States of America as a member of the Arctic Council. Denmark represents Greenland and the Faroe Islands. As of May 2019, thirteen non-Arctic states that have Observer status are: Germany, Netherlands, Poland, the United Kingdom, France, Spain, China, India, Italy, Japan, South Korea, Singapore, and Switzerland.

Elimination Technique The Arctic Council is a council of eight Arctic states. Japan and the UK obviously have none of its regions in the Arctic. So, we can easily mark option (d) as the correct answer.

21. Recently, the USA decided to support India’s membership in multilateral export control regimes called the “Australia Group” and the “Wassenaar Arrangement”. What is the difference between them? (2011)

1. The Australia Group is an informal arrangement which aims to allow exporting countries to minimise the risk of assisting chemical and biological weapons proliferation, whereas the Wassenaar- Arrangement is a formal group under the OECD holding identical objectives.

2. The Australia Group comprises predominantly Asian, African, and North American countries, whereas the member countries of Wassenaar Arrangement are predominantly from the European Union and American continents.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

d) Neither 1 nor 2

21. Answer: (d)

Statement 1 is not correct: The Australia Group (AG), on the other hand, is an informal forum of countries which, through the harmonisation of export controls, seeks to ensure that exports do not contribute to the development of chemical or biological weapons.

O The Wassenaar Arrangement, formally established in July 1996, is a voluntary export control regime whose 42 members exchange information on transfers of conventional weapons and dual-use goods and technologies. Through such exchanges, Wassenaar aims to promote “greater responsibility” among its members in exports of weapons and dual-use goods and to prevent “destabilising accumulations.” It is not formal group under the OECD

O Unlike its predecessor, the Cold War-era Coordinating Committee for Multilateral Export Controls (COCOM), which was created to restrict exports to the former Soviet Union and Eastern bloc, Wassenaar is not targeted at any region or group of states, but rather at “states of concern” to members. Wassenaar members also lack veto authority over other member’s proposed exports, a power that COCOM members exercised.

Statement 2 is not correct: In the Australia Group, there are not many Asian and African countries. Only India (joined in 2018) and Japan (Joined in 1985) are the Asian countries in the Australia Group and there is not a single African country in that group. The Wassenaar agreement has South Africa, Japan, from Asia, but yes, the countries from the EU and Americas are there.

Places in news (2022)

1.Consider the following pairs: (2023)

Regions often mentioned in news : Reason for being in news

1. North Kivu and Ituri : War between Armenia and Azerbaijan

2. NagornoKarabakh : Insurgency in Mozambique

3. Kherson and Zaporizhzhia : Dispute between Israel and Lebanon

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

1. Answer: (d)

1. North Kivu and Ituri: These regions are located in the Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC) and have been in the news primarily due to conflicts and violence involving various armed groups. The region has experienced long-standing conflicts related to ethnic tensions, competition over land and resources, and power struggles.

2. Nagorno-Karabakh: Nagorno-Karabakh is a disputed territory located in the South Caucasus region between Armenia and Azerbaijan. It has been the subject of a long-standing conflict between the two countries. The most recent major escalation of hostilities in NagornoKarabakh occurred in 2020 when a war broke out between Armenia and Azerbaijan over control of the region.

3. Kherson and Zaporizhzhia: These regions are located in Ukraine and have not been directly involved in a dispute between Israel and Lebanon. The ongoing conflict and tensions between Israel and Lebanon primarily revolve around issues such as territorial disputes, border security, and regional geopolitical dynamics. Kherson and Zaporizhzhia have not been central to these specific issues.

2. Consider the following pairs: (2023) Area of conflict mentioned in news : Country where it is located

1. Donbas : Syria

2. Kachin : Ethiopia

3. Tigray : North Yemen

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

2. Answer: (d)

1. Donbas: Donbas is not located in Syria. It refers to a region in eastern Ukraine, primarily consisting of Donetsk and Luhansk oblasts. The conflict in Donbas began in 2014, following Russia’s annexation of Crimea, and involved pro-Russian separatists and Ukrainian government forces.

2. Kachin: Kachin is not located in Ethiopia. It refers to a state in northern Myanmar (formerly known as Burma). The Kachin conflict involves the Kachin Independence Army (KIA) and the Myanmar military. The conflict in Kachin State has been ongoing for several decades.

3. Tigray: Tigray is not located in North Yemen. It refers to a region in northern Ethiopia. The Tigray conflict began in November 2020 when tensions escalated between the Tigray People’s Liberation Front (TPLF) and the Ethiopian government. The conflict has resulted in significant humanitarian concerns and has drawn international attention.

3. In the recent years Chad, Guinea, Mali and Sudan caught international attention for which one of the following reasons is common to all of them? (2023)

(a) Discovery of rich deposits of rare earth elements

(b) Establishment of Chinese military bases

(d) Successful coups

3. Answer: (d)

In recent years Chad, Guinea, Mali and Sudan have caught international attention for Successful coups.

1. Chad: In April 2021, President Idriss Déby, who had been in power for three decades, passed away due to injuries sustained in a military operation. Following his death, a military council led by his son, General Mahamat Idriss Déby, took control of the country. This transition was met with both domestic and international attention.

2. Guinea: In September 2021, Guinea witnessed a military coup led by the Special Forces under the leadership of Colonel Mamady Doumbouya. President Alpha Condé was detained, and the military declared the dissolution of the government and the suspension of the constitution. The coup received widespread international attention and condemnation.

3. Mali: Mali experienced two coups in recent years. In 2020, President Ibrahim Boubacar Keïta was overthrown by a military coup led by Colonel Assimi Goïta. This led to a transitional period and the appointment of a civilian-led government. However, in May 2021, Colonel Goïta staged another coup, dissolving the transitional government and assuming interim presidency. These events attracted international attention and raised concerns about stability and governance in Mali.

4. Sudan: In April 2019, Sudan underwent a significant political transition. Protests against President Omar alBashir’s long rule eventually led to his removal by the military. A transitional military council was established, followed by negotiations between the military and civilian groups. Eventually, a transitional government was formed, and a power-sharing agreement was reached between the military and civilian leaders. This transition in Sudan garnered international attention and support.

4. Consider the following countries: (2022)

1. Armenia

2. Azerbaijan

3. Croatia

4. Romania

5. Uzbekistan

Which of the above are members of the Organization of Turkic States ?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 3, 4 and 5 only

Answer: (c)

Option (c) is correct:

The organisation of Turkic States (then called the Cooperation Council of Turkic Speaking States – Turkic Council) was established in 2009 as an intergovernmental organisation to promote comprehensive cooperation among the Turkic States. Its four founding member states are Azerbaijan, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, and Türkiye. During the 7th Summit held in Baku in October 2019, Uzbekistan joined as a full member. Hungary received observer status at the Organization during its 6th Summit in Cholpon-Ata, Kyrgyz Republic in September 2018. And later in the 8th Summit held in November 2021, Turkmenistan joined as an Observer Member Of the Organization.

5. Which one of the following statements best reflects the issue with Senkaku Islands, sometimes mentioned in the news? (2022)

(a) It is generally believed that they are artificial islands made by a country around the South China Sea.

(b) China and Japan engage in maritime disputes over these islands in the East China Sea. –

(d) Though the International Court of Justice declared them as no man’s land, some South-East Asian countries claim them.

Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct: The 50-year-old controversy between Japan, the People’s Republic of China (PRC), and Taiwan over the sovereignty of a group of tiny, uninhabited islets and rocks in the East China Sea, administered by Japan and referred to as the Senkaku Islands in Japan.

6. Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘Polar Code’ ? (2022)

(a) It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.

(b) It is the agreement of the countries around the North Pole regarding the demarcation of their territories in the polar region.

(c) It is a set of norms to be followed by the countries whose scientists undertake research studies in the North Pole and South Pole.

(d) It is a trade and security agreement of the member countries of the Arctic Council.

Answer: (a) Option (a) is correct: The International Maritime Organization has adopted a mandatory Polar Code to provide for safe ship operation and environmental protection in the polar regions. If you operate a SOLAS or MARPOL ship in Arctic or Antarctic waters, then your ship will soon need to comply with all or part of this Code.

7. Consider the following pairs : (2022) Country Important reason for being in the news recently

1. Chad Setting up of permanent military base by China

2. Guinea Suspension of Constitution and Government by military

3. Lebanon Severe and prolonged economic depression

4. Tunisia Suspension of Parliament by President

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(d) All four pairs

7. Answer: (c)

Option 1 is not correct: China established its first, and so far only, the overseas military base in the eastern African nation of Djibouti in 2017. The facility is strategically located near the Bab el-Mandeb Strait linking the Indian Ocean and the Red Sea. and A permanent Chinese military installation in Equatorial Guinea is the culmination of nearly a decade’s investment in Africa – and will not be the last of such bases on the continent’s Atlantic coast.

Option 2 is correct: In Guinea, military leaders detain the president, declaring the dissolution of government and suspension of the constitution.

Option 3 is correct: Lebanon’s severe and prolonged economic depression is, according to the World Bank, ‘likely to rank in the top 10, possibly top 3, most severe crisis episodes globally since the mid-nineteenth century.

Option 4 is correct: President Kais Saied invoked an emergency act, Article 80, from Tunisia’s constitution on Sunday (July 25), removed the Prime Minister, and suspended the Parliament the next day. Saied took charge of the executive powers in the country promising the appointment of a new leader chosen by him. Saied has relieved cabinet ministers of the country and appointed acting ministers

8. Consider the following pairs: (2014) Region often in news Country

1. Chechnya Russian Federation

2. Darfur Mali

3. Swat Valley Iraq

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

8. Answer: (a)

Pair 1 is correctly matched: Chechnya is in southwestern Russia, situated on the northern flank of the Greater Caucasus range. The region is rich in oil. After a decade of unsuccessfully fighting for independence, the autonomous region is now firmly under the control of Russia. In addition, jihadist groups, including those aligned with Islamic State terrorist organisations, exist in the region.

Pair 2 is not correctly matched: The Darfur region lies in the western part of Sudan, which borders Libya, Chad, and the Central African Republic. The population of Darfur was estimated in 2002 at about six million, eighty percent of whom live in rural areas. Since 2003, the Darfur region of western Sudan has been the site of terrible violence, death, and displacement. The UN described it as “the world’s worst humanitarian crisis”.

Pair 3 is not correctly matched: The Swat Valley is located in northern Khyber Pakhtunkhwa and is enclosed by the Himalayas and the Hindu Kush. It has both mountain ranges and plains. The valley has tourism potential but since 2008 there has been a humanitarian crisis owing to the presence of the Taliban.

Elimination Technique Swat valley is in Pakistan, a famous tourist attraction. So, options (b), (c), and (d)can be eliminated easily. Therefore, we can mark option (a) as the correct

Answer.

INDIAN POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

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